As I read it, one or another of the mantra traditions in India assign mantra-hood to any short set of Sanskrit syllables, so if there are equivalent Hebrew and Sanskrit sounds, then by definition, the equivalent collection of Hebrew syllables are mantras.
There's a LOT of 1, 2, 3 and 4 syllable combinations in Sanskrit, are there not? That means there are a LOT of vedic mantras, depending on which tradition(s) you look at. L ---In FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com, <hepa7@...> wrote : The Hebrew noun plural ending (mostly masculine) is -im. E.g. Genesis 1:1 - bereshit bara elohim* et-hashshamaim ve-et ha-arets. * G-d; (pagan) gods. Song of Songs in Hebrew is shir hash-shirim! What gives??
