i think the "bus address" is not always equality to "physical address".In X86 ,maybe they are the same,but i think it associate with the hardware. i think Rajat's software is not a linux driver, it is the low level under the OS. PCI firmware, right?
If i was wrong, correct me. Thanks. Reference: Document/IO-mapping.txt http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peripheral_Component_Interconnect BRs lin, 2009/6/21 Peter Teoh <[email protected]>: > On Fri, Jun 19, 2009 at 1:40 PM, Rajat Jain<[email protected]> wrote: >> >> Hello Pei / Tom, >> >> Thanks for the response. Actually I understand why the error is coming, >> but my question is a little different. >> >> I'm saying that I understand that MSI works like following: >> >> 1) The device is given "an address" and a "value" (using MAR & MDR >> registers) that it can use later on to generate an interrupt. >> 2) The device later on when wants to send an interrupt, simply write >> this "value" into that address using a PCI write transaction. >> 3) This "address" and "value" is decided by the Intel APIC architecture >> (described in section 9.12 (MSI) of ""Intel 64 and IA-32 Architectures >> Software Developer's Manual" >> http://www.intel.com/Assets/PDF/manual/253668.pdf). >> 4) It is the responsibility of the Intel APIC to generate an interrupt >> to the processor when that "value" is written to that "address". >> >> Now my question is simply this: >> >> Question >> ======== >> APIC generates an interrupt when the device writes that "value" into >> that "address". But will it also generate an interrupt if a SOFTWARE > > normally, when a device write to an address, it is a physical address > from the device's perspective. > >> writes that same "value" into the same "address"???? > > but when a CPU write to an address, due to MMU/pagetable in operation, > it is always a virtual address, that have yet to be translated to a > physical address. the API ioremap() and friends are used for getting > virtual address that will map to the physical address of the hardware > device. > >> >> Currently, my software tries the same and gets the APIC error interrupt. >> Which is partly justified by the section 9.6.3 (Illegal register access) >> since the "address" specified by the same specification (sec 9.12.1) >> actually falls into the reserved category. But since the device can use >> that address, theoritically my SW should also be able to? No? > > whether it is the hardware device accessing the DMA memory or software > accessing the DMA memory, is the same. yes, should be able to. but > u have to make sure that they are touching the same physical address. > not sure if ioremap() have been used? > > sorry if my answer is incorrect......just trying my luck...:-). > >> >> Thanks & Best Regards, >> > > > > > > -- > Regards, > Peter Teoh > -- To unsubscribe from this list: send an email with "unsubscribe kernelnewbies" to [email protected] Please read the FAQ at http://kernelnewbies.org/FAQ
