Jim, You're correct. However you need to add the endpoint definition to your example.
If process C-1 uses endpoint foo and C-2 uses endpoint foo as well, then C-2 must be retired anyway and A can't continue using C-2. Otherwise your two endpoints would conflict and the result is a mess. You can't enable two processes (even two versions of the same process definition) on a single endpoint. On the other end if you changed C to use a different endpoint and you still want to keep C-1 around you can still do it by "branching" which would be renaming C to D for example and you would have C-1 and D-2 (remember that the version number is increased globally, subversion style). That would be an endpoint change so you'd have to update B to make it use the new endpoint for D. Cheers, Matthieu On 3/22/07, Jim Alateras <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Alex, Does that mean that if I have two proceses A and B that depend on process C, then they will both automatically bind to the latest version of process C...that is you can't nominate for process A to continue using Process C-1 and process B to use Process C-2. cheers </jima> Alex Boisvert wrote: > On 3/21/07, Jim Alateras <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >> >> I have BundleA-1/ProcessA-1, which calls BundleB-1/ProcessC-1. If I >> upgrade BundleB with BundleB-2/ProcessC-2 do i need to make changes to >> BundleA-1/ProcessA-1 or will it bind to the latest version of the >> ProcessC automatically? > > > > It should bind to the newest version (ProcessC -2) based on the fact that > ProcessC-1 will be retired as a result of deploying the new version. This > is assuming you didn't change the service name or endpoint. > > alex >
