In message <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> on Wed, 31 Mar 2004 11:23:29 +0200 (METDST), "Simon 
Josefsson via RT" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> said:

rt> 
rt> "Richard Levitte via RT" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
rt> 
rt> > I'm honestly very unsure about this one.  After all, "openssl ca" 
rt> > already covers this, so I wonder why there's a need to create another 
rt> > way to do the same thing, and add to the confusion on how to do things..
rt> > .
rt> 
rt> How would you use "openssl ca" to do the same?  Wouldn't it change
rt> fields in signed certificate, or at least require that the CA key used
rt> to sign correspond to the issuer in the certificate to be signed?  As
rt> far as I understood, the RT thread only indicate "openssl ca" has the
rt> same poor security as -noselfsign imply (in that it makes it possible
rt> for the user to sign certificates without POP), not that "openssl ca"
rt> can do the same operation.

What I understood was that you wanted to be able to sign a certificate
(I call i A from now on) using a CA that doesn't have a root
certificate.  That is perfectly possible to do with "openssl ca",
provided you give it that CA's certificate and key.  Of course, in
preparation, you should create a certificate request (called reqA)
from certificate A.

And yes, of course the newly signed signed certificate (A') will have
new and possibly changed extensions.  That's within normal CA
operations, I believe.

rt> That said, I'm not using OpenSSL today, so I don't have a real
rt> interest in the patch.  If you believe it doesn't add value, I won't
rt> pursue the matter further.

OK.  Well, if you can comment on what I said above, I'll ponder it a
little more and decide on my own from there.  Sounds like a deal?

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