Hi all,
I'm trying to fit a Cox regression model with two factor variables but
have some problems with the interpretation of the results. Considering
the following model, where var1 and var2 can assume value 0 and 1:
coxph(Surv(time, cens) ~ factor(var1) * factor(var2), data=temp)
What is the baseline model? Is that considering the whole population or
the case when both var1 and var2 = 0?
Kind regards,
andi
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