On Wed, 29 Aug 2007, Horace Tso wrote:
> Folks,
>
> I wonder if anything could be said about the distribution of a random variate
> x, where
>
> x = N(0,1)/N(0,1)
>
Instead of asking this off topic question here try googling
'gaussian ratio'
> Obviously x is pathological because it could be 0/0. If we exclude this
> point, so the set is {x/(0/0)}, does x have a well defined distribution? or
> does it exist a distribution that approximates x.
>
> (The case could be generalized of course to N(mu1, sigma1)/N(mu2, sigma2) and
> one still couldn't get away from the singularity.)
>
> Any insight or reference to related discussion is appreciated.
>
> Horace Tso
>
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Charles C. Berry (858) 534-2098
Dept of Family/Preventive Medicine
E mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] UC San Diego
http://famprevmed.ucsd.edu/faculty/cberry/ La Jolla, San Diego 92093-0901
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