Title: Message
Well, Eugene is, for the most part, fighting the premise of my answer and (I think) of Alan's question -- namely, that for the time being, as for the past 33+ years, it would be impermissible to provide direct aid financial to religious institutions that could be diverted to religious activities.  I was trying to answer Alan's question within that framework, which has governed the law since well before Eugene and I were in law school.  As my answer suggested, if there is a sea-change on this issue, i.e., if the unanimous decisons in Tilton and Bowen v. Kendrick are overturned and if the implications of the plurality opinion in Mitchell become the law, then Eugene's formal neutrality result in his final paragraph will surely follow, it is true.
 
As Eugene's post suggests, the Court, rightly or wrongly, has not treated tax exemptions and direct aid alike for purposes of the Establishment Clause, economists be damned.  Eugene quite properly asks why the Court should continue to draw the distinction in this area.  O'Connor's answer -- that "the most important reason for according special treatment to direct money grants is that this form of aid falls precariously close to the original object of the Establishment Clause's prohibition" -- is not terribly satisfying, or illuminating, I agree.
 
What I'd like to suggest is that the ol' tax-empetion/direct-aid dichotomy that has governed this area of law for some time actually is -- or should be, anyway -- a reflection of, or a proxy for, the discretionary/nondiscretionary distinction that I was suggesting.  And here we come to Justice Harlan's long-forgotten and unjustly-ignored concurrence in Walz.  Harlan agreed with you, Eugene, and with Justice Douglas, that "exemptions do not differ from subsidies as an economic matter."   397 U.S. at 698.  Nevertheless, as a general matter, tax exemptions are neutral, generally applicable, and not subject to discretionary, subjective decisionmaking that could result in religious favoritism -- whereas in general, subsidies are the opposite.  As Harlan put it, "Subsidies, unlike exemptions, must be passed on periodically and thus invite more political controversy than exemptions.  Moreover, subsidies or direct aid, as a general rule, are granted on the basis of enumerated and more complicated qualifications and frequently involve the state in administration to a higher degree, though to be sure, this is not necessarily the case."  Id. at 699.  Whether or not it makes sense for the Court to erect a bright line separating subsidies and exemptions in order to reflect this general distinction, I think that Harlan was onto something very important -- and long-forgotten -- namely, that "the more discriminating and complicated the basis of classification," and "the greater the potential for state involvement in evaluating the character of the organizations" [in Walz, for an exemption; in charitable choice, for funding], the greater the risk of constitutional problems.
 
But again, I believe that Alan was assuming that the law on direct funding as we've known it since at least 1971 will continue to be the law -- at least as long as SOC is on the Court -- and was asking why direct aid, if it cannot be diverted to religious activity, can be used to discriminate on the basis of religion in employment.  And that is, I think, a very interesting and difficult question. 
 
 
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, December 23, 2004 3:21 PM
Subject: Tax subsidies vs. non-tax subsidies

It seems to me that this brings up the old question of the extent to which tax exemptions are effectively subsidies.  The Court has generally held that they are, see, e.g., Texas Monthly v. Bullock (religion-preferential tax exemption violates the Establishment Clause); Bob Jones Univ. v. U.S. (the government has a compelling interest in not subsidizing discrimination, which justifies denying tax exemption to a racially discriminatory schools); Taxation With Representation v. Regan (special tax exemption for veteran's groups that lets them, but not other tax-exempt groups, lobby is permissible under the Free Speech Clause because it's just a subsidy to those groups).  Economists likewise tell us that they are.
 
If this is so, then it seems to me that either (1) religious institutions *must* be denied tax exemptions under the Establishment Clause, because they are legally allowed to discriminate based on religion and because they often do so discriminate, or (2) religious institutions *need not* be denied the ability to participate in generally available aid programs (at least ones in which the money is distributed based on objective criteria) even if they discriminate, since those programs are just like tax exemptions.  (This intentionally doesn't speak to whether the First Amendment *requires* that religiously discriminatory organizations be included in the programs, only to whether it *forbids* such inclusion.)
 
Now perhaps, as Marty suggests, the answer is indeed different when the aid program (unlike exemption programs) is administered pursuant to subjective criteria rather than objective ones.  But if the government pays for the cost of all school bus service, lets schools hire their own drivers, and doesn't object when religious schools hire based on religion, then it strikes me as quite similar to the government giving a tax exemption to all donors to charitable causes, and doesn't object when religious recipients of the donations hire based on religion.
 
Eugene
 
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Marty Lederman
Sent: Thursday, December 23, 2004 12:03 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: charitable choice hypothetical

A complicated question, I think, Alan.  I assume, in your hypo, that the state is simply paying for the cost of bus service, right? -- not actually providing the service through the auspices of a state-run transporation outfit.  Because if the bus driver were actually an employee of the state, obviously the state could not limit its employment decisions to persons of a particular religion.  See Torcaso; McDaniel; article VI, etc.  Nor could the state cede the power to religious institutions to cabin the state's own choices of whom to employ (Larkin).
 
So let's assume a program of direct payment to private schools for the costs of providing bus service.  Under current doctrine (which might not be for long for this world), the dollars could not be expended on "specifically" religious activity, such as proselytizing, bible studies or prayer.  (Bowen v. Kendrick; Tilton; SOC's opinion in Michell v. Helms.)  The question, then, would be why such dollars could be used for discriminatory hiring practices -- i.e., why coreligionist hiring is constitutionally distinct in this cotext from prayer, bible studies, etc., even though the Religion Clause would prohibit the state itself from engaging in both forms of activity "directly."  But in order to answer that question, one would need a fuller, richer account of why direct aid provided to all schools (e.g., on a per capita basis) cannot be used for certain religious activity.  Unfortunately, all we know, as of now, is that according to Justice O'Connor, "the most important reason for according special treatment to direct money grants is that this form of aid falls precariously close to the original object of the Establishment Clause's prohibition."  Not much to go on in that cryptic statement. 
 
I would note, however, that on the Burger Court, even the anti-separationist Justices thought there was a serious problem in providing funds to schools that discriminate on the basis of religion.  In his dissent in Lemon, for instance, Justice White acknowledged that an aid program (e.g., for teacher salaries) would be unconstitutional to the extent there were evidence that the recipient schools restricted entry on racial or religious grounds, or required all students to receive instruction in the tenets of a particular faith.  403 U.S. at 671 n.2.  The Court cited with apparent favor to this footnote in Norwood, 413 U.S. at 464 n.7.  I suppose one could argue that discriminating against students is more problematic than discriminating against employees, because students are the "ultimate" beneficiaries of the aid program. But then again, it's the employees, not the students, who actually receive the government dollars. 
 
The basic question, I suppose, is whether the government violates the Constitution by giving money to an entity knowing that the state moneys will be used to engage in a form of discrimination that would be forbidden to the state itself.  I don't know that there is a single answer to that question.  In my view, however, the constitutional problem is most pronounced where the government aid is discretionary and selective, and distributed on the basis of highly subjective criteria, because in such a case, it's much more tenable to conclude that the government's choice of a discriminating recipient over a nondiscriminating recipient evidences at least a modicum of government "endorsement" of the discrimination.  That is to say, the government is more (constitutionally) responsible for what happens with its funding when in the first instance it must make discretionary choices of who should receive that funding.  By contrast, I think the constitutional concern is less pronounced where the aid is awarded on the basis of objective criteria, or on a per capita basis.  But cf. O'Connor's opinion in Mitchell.
 
Is that at all responsive?
 
 
----- Original Message -----
From: "A.E. Brownstein" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: "Law & Religion issues for Law Academics" <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>
Sent: Thursday, December 23, 2004 2:24 PM
Subject: charitable choice hypothetical

> In reading arguments defending charitable choice provisions that permit
> religious non-governmental providers to discriminate on the basis of
> religion in hiring employees to staff government funded programs serving
> public purposes -- even if the program is entirely supported by government
> funds and is subject to various government regulations and conditions, I
> began to think about the reach of these arguments.
>
> Proponents of discriminatory hiring argue:
>
> 1. This is an accommodation of the religious liberty interest of religious
> individuals to work together with co-religionists.
>
> 2. The accommodation serves the legitimate secular purpose of permitting
> co-religionists to work together.
>
> 3. The accommodation does not impermissibly advance religion. The reason
> religion is not impermissibly advanced is, in part, because
>
> a. The discrimination is not invidious and the persons denied job
> opportunities are not stigmatized by their exclusion from these job
> opportunities.
>
> b. The religious liberty of persons denied employment because of their
> religious beliefs is not burdened by being denied tax payer funded, public
> purpose employment opportunities.
>
> Obviously, I strongly disagree with most of these arguments. But my
> question is this. Suppose a state provides free school bus service to
> students attending both private and public schools. May the state allow
> religious private schools to select the bus driver transporting their
> students to the school and insist that the driver must be of the same faith
> as the school's teachers and administrators -- and may the state grant such
> requests as an accommodation? (Or alternatively, when public school
> teachers are assigned to provide remedial services to students at a
> religious school, may religious schools be granted the accommodation of
> choosing teachers of a particular faith to be assigned to those duties.)
>
> Wouldn't all of the above arguments apply to these situation? The religious
> discrimination would be an accommodation of religious individuals desire to
> work with co-religionists. (And., of course, the state can take religion
> into account in accommodating religion.) The accommodation would serve a
> secular purpose and not impermissibly advance religion for all of the
> reasons argued above.
>
> If there is an Establishment Clause problem with these hypothetical
> accommodations, what is it? It can't be that public resources (here labor
> instead of capital) are placed under the control of religious institutions
> which practice religious discrimination in using those resources -- because
> that is what charitable choice does.
>
> Alan Brownstein
> UC Davis
>
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