This is not the same as giving money to a synagogue or other religious institution; a Jew can use food stamps for kosher food; and Hindu for vegitarian food; a Moslem for Halal meat; but they should not be allowed to give the stamps to their synagogue, temples, etc.

Rick Duncan wrote:
Or better yet, change the food stamp hypo to Kosher food. Why should non-Jews be taxed to pay for Kosher observance? The answer, of course, is that they are not being taxed to pay for Kosher observance. They are being taxed to pay for food supplements for the poor, including food stamp recipients who choose to keep a Kosher kitchen.
 
The same with education taxes supporting school choice. No one is being taxed to support religious instruction as such. Everyone is being taxed to pay for education, and everyone gets a free tax supported education up front in return for paying a lifetime of educational taxes. Both Kosher education (in private religious schools) and non-Kosher education (in all other schools)  are equally funded. There should be no strife at all, because everyone pays and everyone receives. Indeed, the battles over the public school curriculum we have been discussing would be less likely to occur (less strife) if dissenting families could exit the public schools without penalty.
 
The real strife is created when Jews are denied Kosher food in the food stamp program and when families who choose private schools are denied their fair slice of the K-12 educational benefit pie. I deeply resent being forced to pay taxes to support a system which provides no benefits to my children. I feel like a second class citizen. And many millions more feel the same way.
 
Rick

Francis Beckwith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
Given the regulatory state in which we live—one that requires that parents who send their children to religious private school must pay for both the school tuition as well as taxes to fund public schools--it seems to me that the principle from which Madison drew his conclusion is not so easily dispositive in resolving this dispute.  Suppose, for example, it were discovered that food stamp recipients were using some of them for the purchase of bread and grape juice for Catholic Masses conducted in their homes.  Would that violate Madison’s principle, since the purchase results from money acquired through taxing non-Catholics?  Or would it be consistent with Madison’s principle, since the purchase is the result of the free agency of the citizen who received the food stamps rather than a result of a government-directed order (as in the case of r! eligious assessments in early America)?  Suppose we change the “food stamps” to “school vouchers” and the “bread and grape juice” to “Catholic school admission”?

I’m not sure Madison is helpful here.

Frank



On 8/3/05 11:27 PM, "Paul Finkelman" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

I would suggest you reread Madison's remonstrance on Religious freedom; one of the clear motivating factors for the establishment clause was to preclude the possibility that people would have to pay for other people's religion.  That was what was going on in Va and that, quite frankly, is what the voucher system is all about;  when tax money ends up in a religious school, it means that taxpayers of one faith are forced to support the religious schools of someone else.  Madison understood how deeply wrong, dangerous, and offensive that was.  I am surprised that you and Rick don't see this.

Paul Finkelman

Pybas, Kevin M wrote:
All of the comments are helpful, but let me raise another question that is akin to the one Rick raised.  He asked  
 
  
whether, why, and / or how these motivations, or the
undesirability of such strife should be used to supply the
Establishment Clause's enforceable content.
    

WIth regard to neutral aid programs (as the Court characterizes them), is it really religious strife that worries us?  In other words, in the context of the modern administrative state, are the conflicts over the funding of education, for example, whether it be vouchers or the type of aid at issue in Mitchell, really about religion, or religiously-motivated in any sense?  In other words, how do we tell the difference between religously-motivated political strife and ordinary political disagreements (I understand that the word "ordinary" may not he all that helpful, but hopefully you see what I mean.)  

 



________________________________

From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] on behalf of Paul Finkelman
Sent: Wed 8/3/2005 5:08 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: religiously-motivated political strife


 
  



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Rick Duncan
Welpton Professor of Law
University of Nebraska College of Law
Lincoln, NE 68583-0902

"When the Round Table is broken every man must follow either Galahad or Mordred: middle things are gone." C.S.Lewis, Grand Miracle

"I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed, or numbered." --The Prisoner


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