A brief comment, my last for a few days at least due to press of other
matters:

If the government says that those churches with a certain kind of mix of
persons in their clergy are entitled to a tax-exempt charitable status
(given to churches without regard to any proof beyond proof that they are a
church), but that those churches with a different kind of mix of persons in
their clergy are not so entitled, isn't there a colorable argument at least
that the state is "establishing" the former group of churches?

My point is that the Establishment Clause (and perhaps the Free Exercise
Clause as well) may prohibit certain forms of discriminatory treatment of
religious organizations that would be permitted in other contexts. The
Constitution is very much concerned with preventing government from
discriminating among religions.

Mark S. Scarberry
Pepperdine University School of Law
 

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
[mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Friday, March 03, 2006 12:40 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: State
RFRAandnonreligiousgroupsthathaveconscientiousobjectionstoantidiscrimination
laws

        Now this I'm not sure I quite grasp.  Why is the state's judgment
that the Catholic Church discriminates based on sex in hiring clergy --
followed by the application of a (hypothetical) generally applicable rule
that sex-discriminatory groups aren't entitled to tax exemption (a rule,
incidentally, that I wouldn't endorse as a policy
matter) -- an "unavoidably theological judgment"?  The Church is neither
secretive nor ambiguous in its men-only rule for the priesthood.

        It's true that the state's decision would contradict the Church's
theological views, but that's true of a vast range of state decisions.  And
it's true that the Church has a constitutional right to discriminate in
choice of clergy; yet the government is not obligated to subsidize the
exercise of constitutional rights.

        Eugene
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