The ban on abortion doesn't violate the Establishment Clause because there are 
sufficient non-religious reasons to justify the ban. If the only reasons 
sufficient to justify the ban were religious, that would contravene the secular 
purpose requirement.

To answer your question below, I'm not arguing that religious accommodations 
that are otherwise consistent with the Equal Protection Clause are 
unconstitutional simply because they are motivated to accommodate religious 
believers. That would be to rule out all religious accommodations (which is not 
my view). Rather, my claim is that when accommodations require (or would 
require) the state to contravene otherwise applicable constitutional 
principles, the Establishment Clause may impose limits based on concerns about 
third party harms.

Maybe you think the Establishment Clause claim here is superfluous, but that 
doesn't seem like a full description of the harms. If the state can't authorize 
some action because it is otherwise constitutionally impermissible, and if it 
does so anyway for purposes of religious accommodation, it hasn't only violated 
the Equal Protection Clause, for example, but it has done so in a way that 
promotes religion over other constitutionally recognized interests. And that 
has Establishment Clause implications under existing doctrine.


On Jun 6, 2016, at 8:44 PM, "Volokh, Eugene" 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>>
 wrote:

               I agree that a state single-race swimming pool program would 
violate the Equal Protection Clause, whether it’s motivated by religious or 
secular objections to race mixing.  But I don’t see why it would violate the 
Establishment Clause – just as a ban on abortion, for instance, has been held 
to violate the Due Process Clause, but it doesn’t violate the Establishment 
Clause.

               But if a state single-sex swimming pool program wouldn’t violate 
the Equal Protection Clause, if motivated by some users’ secular preferences 
for single-sex swimming (such as the ones in Livingwell), then I don’t think it 
would violate the Establishment Clause if motivated by some users’ religious 
preferences (for the reasons offered in my abortion funding analogy).

               Micah, are you arguing that an otherwise 
non-Equal-Protection-Clause-violating separate-sex program becomes 
unconstitutional when it is motivated by a desire to accommodate religious 
users?  Or am I misunderstanding your position?

               Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:boun...@lists.ucla.edu>] On 
Behalf Of Schwartzman, Micah Jacob (mjs4d)
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 5:20 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: Re: Facially neutral accommodations motivated by some objectors' 
religious beliefs

The point of modifying your example isn't to draw a race analogy. It's to show 
that your example is trading on the assumption of the underlying constitutional 
permissibility of the state's action. And then it's asking whether that 
assumption is doing any work in the Establishment Clause analysis. (You could 
reach the same point by asking how your first two examples would look if 
state-owned hospitals were required to allow abortions under the 14th 
Amendment.)

If the state required a religious accommodation for single-race swimming, that 
accommodation would violate both the Equal Protection Clause and the 
Establishment Clause. It would do the latter by imposing third party harms, 
here harms of constitutional significance (incorporating equal protection 
concerns), on nonbeneficiaries, in contravention of Caldor and Cutter.

Why is it that the harms at issue in Caldor and Cutter can't sound, at least in 
part, in other provisions of the Constitution?

On Jun 6, 2016, at 7:50 PM, "Volokh, Eugene" 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>>
 wrote:


               1.  As I’ve mentioned before, I don’t think race classifications 
are a helpful analogy to sex classifications where privacy is concerned.  Most 
people accept single-sex shower rooms, changing rooms, and restrooms 
(bracketing for now the discussion about transgender people), though we 
wouldn’t accept single-race ones.  Likewise, I’m pretty sure that, when it 
comes to private entities and public accommodations laws (rather than 
government entities and the Equal Protection Clause) theLivingwell court would 
not have accepted an argument for single-race health clubs justified by a 
“privacy” rationale.  The question is whether sex-based privacy/modesty 
rationales, which we accept for some contexts where they represent majority 
views, should also be applicable to nearby areas (such as swimming pools) where 
only a minority sees a strong privacy/modesty concern.  No such question 
applies to race or religion classifications.

               2.  But that’s the Equal Protection Clause analysis – as an 
Establishment Clause matter, I likewise don’t see how single-race swimming 
hours would pose an Establishment Clause problem.  They violate the Equal 
Protection Clause, but not the Establishment Clause.  Likewise, single-religion 
swimming hours would violate the religious discrimination prohibition, 
seeLarson v. Valente, and not some other Religion Clauses principle (such as 
one that people are trying to bring in here via Estate of Thornton v. Caldor).  
If the objection is about discrimination, whether based on sex, race, or 
religion, that is a matter for the Equal Protection Clause (or the similar 
doctrine of Larson, when it comes to religious discrimination), not for 
Thornton.

               Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:boun...@lists.ucla.edu>] On 
Behalf Of Schwartzman, Micah Jacob (mjs4d)
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 4:33 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: Re: Facially neutral accommodations motivated by some objectors' 
religious beliefs

What if we modify your last example in this way:

               3.  If it doesn’t violate the Establishment Clause for 
individual county hospitals to decide whether to provide abortions, why would 
it violate the Establishment Clause for individual city-run swimming pools to 
decide whether to provide [co-religionist or single-race] swimming hours?  
(Again, I set aside the question whether this violates the Equal Protection 
Clause, quite apart from the religious questions.)

Still no Establishment Clause problem?



On Jun 6, 2016, at 6:48 PM, Volokh, Eugene 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>> wrote:
               1.  Say that a state decides not to allow abortions at 
state-owned hospitals, because taxpayers object to paying for them.  We know 
this is constitutionally permissible, and doesn’t violate the Establishment 
Clause, seeHarris v. McRae.  It doesn’t matter whether the taxpayers object to 
abortion for secular reasons or religious reasons; the state can choose not to 
fund them, without violating the Establishment Clause.  And that is so even 
though one can call this a “burden” on third parties, who as a result find it 
harder to get abortions.

               2.  Now say that a state doesn’t regulate this at a state level, 
but leaves it for each hospital to make this decision (based on its sense of 
the preferences of local taxpayers, local employees, etc.).  Unsurprisingly, 
county hospitals in areas where anti-abortion sentiment is more common choose 
not to provide abortions, while county hospitals in other areas do provide 
them.  Does this somehow become an impermissible “religious gerrymander,” 
simply because the state leaves this for local hospitals to decide?

               3.  If it doesn’t violate the Establishment Clause for 
individual county hospitals to decide whether to provide abortions, why would 
it violate the Establishment Clause for individual city-run swimming pools to 
decide whether to provide single-sex swimming hours?  (Again, I set aside the 
question whether this violates the Equal Protection Clause, quite apart from 
the religious questions.)

               Eugene

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Alan E Brownstein
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 2:21 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: Re: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

I think the answer to Chip's question is that an Establishment Clause analysis 
evaluating the harms caused by a religious accommodation does require a 
balancing of interests. Indeed, the balancing analysis would have significant 
similarities to the balancing necessary to implement a serious free exercise 
jurisprudence.
Balancing has its problems, but the alternatives seem worse: either we reject 
accommodations that impose costs on third parties -- an approach which severely 
limits accommodations -- or we allow all accommodations without regard to the 
costs they impose on third parties.
Note that this approach could include a variety of doctrinal nuances and 
distinctions as is true for free speech doctrine, but it is hard to avoid some 
role for balancing if we are going to take account of both the need for 
accommodations and the harms accommodations may impose on third parties.
Alan

Sent from my iPhone

On Jun 6, 2016, at 9:51 AM, "Ira Lupu" 
<icl...@law.gwu.edu<mailto:icl...@law.gwu.edu>> wrote:
I agree that it's not for the state to arbitrate between Hillel's and Meir's 
view about what is embedded in Jewish law with respect to women's bodies.  But 
I want to go back to Eugene's earlier argument that 3rd party harms are not 
relevant to the Establishment Clause problem because the accommodation is not 
religion-specific -- that is, the hours are "women only," not "Jewish women 
only."  True enough, but there is still a gerrymander here -- this is not a 
City wide policy.  It applies only to this one neighborhood pool, in a 
neighborhood with a strong Orthodox Jewish presence.  (If the policy were 
city-wide, it would help all women who want female-only swimming hours, for 
whatever reason. The sex discrimination problem would remain.)  In light of the 
conspicuous religious gerrymander, perhaps we need to add Kiryas Joel to the 
mix of relevant cases.

When the policy is 1) motivated by religion specific concerns, and 2) 
geographically limited to reflect those concerns, perhaps the Caldor problem of 
harms to third parties (men, who want those hours to swim, and the weekday 
hours may be just as important to some of them as the Sunday hours) remains.  
If so, I repeat the question -- is the relevant test one of "balancing" 
religious accommodations against inconvenience to others?  How would we do 
that, with or without interrogating religious reasoning?

On Mon, Jun 6, 2016 at 12:20 PM, Meir Katz 
<meirka...@gmail.com<mailto:meirka...@gmail.com>> wrote:
Hillel's assumption that "Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded 
within them, and reinforce, certain [negative] assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies [that are contrary to public policy]" is both 
incorrect and not widely held by those who observe those laws. The laws have a 
rather different purpose, one certainly not contrary to public policy, that was 
shared broadly by civil society until the 1950s. I would be interested to learn 
from where Hillel's assumption derives.

In any event, even if Hillel's assumption were arguably correct, it would still 
be inappropriate, as Eugene inquires, for a judge (or, for that matter, any 
third-party decision-maker) to use that assumption to bias his decisions. A 
civil judge cannot be in the position of deciding religious questions or 
determining the contours of religious law. For one to conclude that "Jewish 
laws relating to sexual modesty have embedded within them, and reinforce, 
certain [negative] assumptions," he would need to have a deep and rather 
sophisticated understanding not just of what those Jewish laws require, but 
also where they come from, why they exist, and how they impact those who follow 
them. That inquiry necessarily intrudes deeply into religious thought. Even if 
a civil judge were able to perform that inquiry properly and reach an accurate 
conclusion, it is not a proper role for that judge.

Moreover, as I intimated in my first paragraph, the assumption that Hillel 
reaches is contrary to the purpose and objective behind Jewish modesty laws as 
generally understood by its adherents. As a result, using the assumption to 
guide judicial decision-making would not merely improperly impose physical 
burdens on the religious adherents, it would also impose on them an alternative 
understanding as to what their religious laws actually mean. If the women (and 
men) who willingly subject themselves to religious modesty laws understand 
those laws as not as reinforcing norms and assumptions that are contrary to 
public policy (broadly defined), why should the contrary, and possibly 
unfounded, assumptions of a judge (or anyone) play any role at all in 
determining their entitlement to observe that law at state expense? And what 
authority does a civil judge have to tell them that their laws have some 
alternative purpose or function?

Similarly, false advertising and other claims against kosher certifying 
agencies and food manufacturers that produce food labeled "kosher," despite not 
being kosher from the perspective of the plaintiff, fail precisely because 
civil courts lack the authority to determine how Jewish law operates or whether 
a given food item is kosher under Jewish law. It certainly follows that courts 
lack the authority to determine the purpose underlying the laws of 
kashrut--say, perhaps, to promote hygiene--and then use that assumption to 
resolve related matters. Indeed, permitting a court to decide the why behind 
religious law is a greater intrusion into the religious sphere than permitting 
a court to decide the what.

That analysis applies no differently when discussing religious laws governing 
modesty, regardless of the popularity of those laws in civil society.

Meir Katz





Message: 1

Date: Sat, 4 Jun 2016 00:50:23 +0000

From: "Volokh, Eugene" <vol...@law.ucla.edu><mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>

To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics

 <religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu><mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>

Subject: Jewish law, women's bodies, and accommodations

Message-ID:

 
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Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"



Hillel Levin writes:







My primary opposition to the gender-segregated swim hours is not simply the 
formal segregation of the sexes and the practical burdens this may pose on 
people. Rather, it is that the Jewish laws relating to sexual modesty have 
embedded within them, and reinforce, certain assumptions and norms about 
women's and girls' bodies. I don't think the law should reflect, reinforce, or 
send those messages in public spaces.







Setting this aside as a basis for political opposition, are courts allowed to 
consider the underlying assumptions and norms that may be said to be embedded 
in religious laws?  Say that in town J, there are many Orthodox Jews, and many 
Orthodox women want single-sex swim hours because of Jewish laws that are based 
on, and ?reinforce? ?certain assumptions and norms about women?s and girls? 
bodies.?  Say that in town W, there are many Wiccan Goddess-worshippers, and 
many women who belong to that group want single-sex swim hours because they 
believe women should spend more time celebrating and improving their bodies 
free of male observation and the self-consciousness and body image problems 
that it brings.  And say that in town S, there are many secular people, and 
many women in that town like single-sex swim hours for the secular reasons 
given in the Livingwell case I mentioned before.







Could it be that courts might uphold the single-sex pool hours in town W and 
maybe town S, because the women?s preferences are based on good assumptions and 
norms about women?s bodied, but reject them in town J because the judges think 
that Jewish law is based on bad assumptions and preferences?







Eugene





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--
Ira C. Lupu
F. Elwood & Eleanor Davis Professor of Law, Emeritus
George Washington University Law School
2000 H St., NW
Washington, DC 20052
(202)994-7053
Co-author (with Professor Robert Tuttle) of "Secular Government, Religious 
People" ( Wm. B. Eerdmans Pub. Co., 2014))
My SSRN papers are here:
http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/cf_dev/AbsByAuth.cfm?per_id=181272#reg
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