This is a brief response, but let's assume that religious accommodations can be 
justified for religious reasons or for secular reasons or both. In some cases, 
the government might have secular reasons. But in other cases, the facts might 
suggest that the underlying religious reasons are the actual purpose for the 
law. Maybe similar accommodations aren't granted in other jurisdictions, where 
religious reasons aren't presented. Arguments about gerrymandering might 
support claims of this kind.

In any event, I haven't claimed that single-sex swimming might be justified on 
secular grounds but not on grounds of religious accommodation (whether the 
motivation for the accommodation is secular or religious). And indeed, I 
disclaimed the argument that a motivation to accommodate would necessarily make 
such an accommodation impermissible. But if such an accommodation is 
impermissible when adopted for (first-order) secular reasons, and if it would 
otherwise violate the Equal Protection Clause, then I don't see how an argument 
based on religious accommodation saves it. And indeed, I think there are 
further Establishment Clause concerns, something about which we seem to 
disagree.

Re: Erznoznik, I'm not sure I follow your question. Are you asking: if the ban 
was motivated for religious reasons, would that offend the Establishment Clause 
(in addition to the Free Exercise Clause)? Maybe Clayton v. Place, involving a 
ban on dancing in public schools, is an example of the kind you have in mind? 
Is your view that a prohibition on speech (or otherwise permissible expressive 
conduct) justified solely on the basis of religious reasons would nonetheless 
be permissible under the Establishment Clause?


On Jun 6, 2016, at 10:33 PM, "Volokh, Eugene" 
<vol...@law.ucla.edu<mailto:vol...@law.ucla.edu>>
 wrote:

               I’m intrigued by the question about sufficient non-religious 
reasons.  If the question is really whether the government has some reasons for 
an accommodation that don’t just stem from the governors’ own religious 
beliefs, I would think they’d almost always be present.  Here, for instance, 
the government may want to promote the health (or just happiness) of women who 
would otherwise not go the pool.  After all, the government has secular reasons 
for having pools in the first place: the public’s health and pleasure.  If it 
sees that some part of the community feels unable to enjoy the pools, for 
religious reasons or otherwise, there would be ample non-religious reasons to 
jigger the rules in order to make the pools appealing to that part (and to make 
sure that this part gets its taxes’ worth).  Now maybe there are Equal 
Protection Clause constraints on what the government can do here.  But there 
surely are non-religious reasons.

               Of course, maybe the question is whether the government has some 
reasons for an accommodation that don’t just stem from the accommodated 
people’s religious beliefs.  But why should that be the question?  Why would a 
single-sex pool rule be justified if motivated by the Livingwell secular 
women’s concern, and not if motivated by Orthodox Jewish (or traditionalist 
Muslim) women’s concerns?

               Finally, to respond to the last paragraph, say that it turns out 
that the law in Erznoznik v. City of Jacksonville, which banned the display of 
nudity on drive-in theaters, were motivated in large part by the sense that 
many people thought it was offensive to their sense of modesty to be 
unwillingly confronted by large moving color pictures of nudity.  The law would 
still violate the Free Speech Clause, as the Court held in Erznoznik.  But why 
would it violate the Establishment Clause?  Or is it that it would avoid 
Establishment Clause violation only because many people also don’t want to see 
nudity for their own nonreligious reasons (though again I think that some women 
may enjoy single-sex swimming for nonreligious reasons).

               Eugene


From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:boun...@lists.ucla.edu>] On 
Behalf Of Schwartzman, Micah Jacob (mjs4d)
Sent: Monday, June 06, 2016 6:23 PM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics 
<religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu>>
Subject: Re: Facially neutral accommodations motivated by some objectors' 
religious beliefs

The ban on abortion doesn't violate the Establishment Clause because there are 
sufficient non-religious reasons to justify the ban. If the only reasons 
sufficient to justify the ban were religious, that would contravene the secular 
purpose requirement.

To answer your question below, I'm not arguing that religious accommodations 
that are otherwise consistent with the Equal Protection Clause are 
unconstitutional simply because they are motivated to accommodate religious 
believers. That would be to rule out all religious accommodations (which is not 
my view). Rather, my claim is that when accommodations require (or would 
require) the state to contravene otherwise applicable constitutional 
principles, the Establishment Clause may impose limits based on concerns about 
third party harms.

Maybe you think the Establishment Clause claim here is superfluous, but that 
doesn't seem like a full description of the harms. If the state can't authorize 
some action because it is otherwise constitutionally impermissible, and if it 
does so anyway for purposes of religious accommodation, it hasn't only violated 
the Equal Protection Clause, for example, but it has done so in a way that 
promotes religion over other constitutionally recognized interests. And that 
has Establishment Clause implications under existing doctrine.
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