RE: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Marc Stern
 Why isn't Shelley v. Kramer at least relevant, even if it can be
distinguished, and even if it's most extreme implications-that all judicial
enforcement of private activity is state action- would be problematic to
many albeit not always in the same cases?

 

Marc D. Stern

Associate General Counsel

for Legal Advocacy


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From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Nathan Oman
Sent: Monday, January 03, 2011 10:28
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant
toan arbitration agreement?

 

It seems difficult to find an equal protection violation if the Court is
merely enforcing the contract.  It seems to me that a more likely
constitutional objection would be that the contract cannot be enforced
without running afoul of the neutral principles doctrine.  Can a court make
a decision about who is or is not a Muslim without making theological
choices?  Would a shia muslim be acceptable?  A member of the nation of
Islam?


Nathan B. Oman
Associate Professor
William  Mary Law School
P.O. Box 8795
Williamsburg, VA 23187
(757) 221-3919

I beseech you, in the bowels of Christ, think it possible you may be
mistaken. -Oliver Cromwell



On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 10:06 AM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:

That's the issue lurking in
http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=11521915190435651264 In re
Aramco Servs. Co., now on appeal to the Texas Supreme Court. DynCorp and
Aramco Services (both of which were at the time Delaware corporations
headquartered in Houston, though Aramco Services is a subsidiary of Saudi
Aramco https://www.aramcoservices.com/about/ , the Saudi government's oil
company) signed an agreement under which DynCorp was to create a computer
system (in the U.S.) and install it at Aramco's Saudi facilities. The
contract provided that it was to be interpreted under Saudi law, and
arbitrated under Saudi arbitration rules and regulations. Those rules and
regulations apparently call for the arbitrators to be Muslim Saudi citizens.
The trial court, however, appointed a three-arbitrator panel consisting of a
Muslim (apparently a Saudi) and two non-Muslim non-Saudis. Aramco appealed,
arguing that (1) under the contract the arbitrators were not supposed to be
appointed by a court, and, (2) in the alternative, that the court erred in
appointing non-Muslim non-Saudis.

 

The Texas Court of Appeals agreed with Aramco on item 1, and therefore
didn't reach item 2. But there is an interesting constitutional issue
lurking in the background: If a contract does call for a court to appoint
arbitrators, and provides that the arbitrators must be Muslims (or Jews or
Catholics or what have you), may a court implement that provision, or does
the First Amendment or the Equal Protection Clause bar the court - a
government entity - from discriminating based on religion this way, even
pursuant to a party agreement?  Any thoughts on this?

 

Eugene

 


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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread hamilton02
Nathan is correct in that I would think judicial enforcement of contracts 
requiring religious arbitrators has plenty of opportunities to threaten the 
liberal state. 
First, I assume as a matter of contract law that any obligations arising out of 
such agreements that involve otherwise illegal conduct are void.  So genital 
mutilation, trading of girls as wives (or simply for procreation), aiding 
polygamy, covering up child abuse when it is required to be reported, and the 
settling of debts through indentured servitude are out of the picture.   
Second, does commercial arbitration ever involve real property?  If so, we are 
right back in Shelley v Kraemer territory, no?   One of the reasons in my view 
justifying the Shelley result is that such contracts shut out minorities for 
generations to come.  The time lag of the deal is troubling
Third, I see little difference between this and Bob Jones or Shelley, so I 
think the racial category is likely to cause courts great trouble
Finally, why isn't a liberal society better served by enforcement of such 
agreements within their own universes, which would leave the civil courts out?  
Religious cultures have plenty of ways to penalize their members including 
excommunication or shunning.  Why are civil courts needed exceopt to shore up 
the power of the religion?

Marci  
Sent from my Verizon Wireless BlackBerry

-Original Message-
From: Nathan Oman nate.o...@gmail.com
Sender: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu
Date: Mon, 3 Jan 2011 16:55:34 
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academicsreligionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Reply-To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics religionlaw@lists.ucla.edu
Subject: Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to
an arbitration agreement?

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Re: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Nathan Oman

 First, I assume as a matter of contract law that any obligations arising
 out of such agreements that involve otherwise illegal conduct are void.  So
 genital mutilation, trading of girls as wives (or simply for procreation),
 aiding polygamy, covering up child abuse when it is required to be reported,
 and the settling of debts through indentured servitude are out of the
 picture.


This is true regardless of the religious content of the contract, and would
be true regardless of the content of constitutional law.  (Also, it is worth
pointing out that female genital mutilation is not condoned by Islamic law
and is condemned by ulama of the classical fiqh.)


 Second, does commercial arbitration ever involve real property?  If so, we
 are right back in Shelley v Kraemer territory, no?   One of the reasons in
 my view justifying the Shelley result is that such contracts shut out
 minorities for generations to come.  The time lag of the deal is troubling


Two points.  First, in most of the commercial arbitrations involving Islamic
law any real estate is located in a foreign country.  Furthermore, the main
point at which these arbitrations are likely to diverge significantly from
western law is in the application of the prohibition on riba, which is
basically usury.  The reality is that this is not going to be a dramatic
show down over FMG or the stoning of adulterers.  It is going to be a
dispute about whether a sale and lease back transaction contains an implied
usurious interest rate or the like.  Second, while I think that there is
some truth to concerns about the long lasting effects of real estate, I
don't think that is ultimately what makes the outcome in Shelly v. Kramer
justifiable is that it involved real rather than personal property.  Rather,
I think that it had everything to do with the history of racial
subordination in this country and the way in which real estate covenants
perpetuated that system of racial subordination.  It makes not sense to me
to try to understand the outcomes in cases like Shelly v. Kramer as applying
some universal principle rather than as a reaction to the particular history
of slavery and its aftermath in the United States.  The normative question,
it seems to me, is whether, in light of American history and our present
circumstances, Islamic arbitration of commercial disputes between two large
corporations that have agreed to the application of Islamic law to their
dispute arising out of a transaction occurring in Saudi Arabia raises
some similar systemic threat to liberal democracy in the United States.
 Frankly, I just don't see it as being remotely analogous to the way in
which Jim Crow undermined the liberal order in the United States.  Indeed,
attempts to equate the two strike me as bizarrely implausible.

Finally, why isn't a liberal society better served by enforcement of such
 agreements within their own universes, which would leave the civil courts
 out?  Religious cultures have plenty of ways to penalize their members
 including excommunication or shunning.  Why are civil courts needed exceopt
 to shore up the power of the religion?


I actually think that this makes a great deal of sense, and as I read the
contract at issue in the Texas case it is not at all clear to me that it
actually did contemplate an American court -- as opposed to a Saudi court --
appointing the arbiter.  Hence, as a prudential matter, I think that
religious communities would be best served not trying to heavily enlist the
state in their dispute resolution processes.  That said, it seems to me that
one can involve the state in such contracts on exactly the same basis that
the state is involved in all contracts, namely respecting the independent
choices of its citizens to order their legal affairs as they see fit.  Such
an autonomy justification for contract is essentially agnostic as to the
substantive content of contracts, so long as they do not stray into
illegality or unconscionability.  What matter is not what the parties choose
but that they chose it.

Nate Oman
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RE: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan arbitration agreement?

2011-01-03 Thread Friedman, Howard M.
I think the 1983 New York Court of Appeals decision in Avitzur v. Avitzur, 446 
NE2d 136 is relevant to this discussion. There a court enforced the so-called 
Lieberman clause in a Jewish marriage contract (Ketubah) which bound the 
parties to appear before a Jewish religious court so the wife could obtain a 
religious divorce once the parties were divorced civilly.  The New York court 
enforced the agreement over Establishment Clause objections, saying:

In short, the relief sought by plaintiff in this action is simply to compel 
defendant to perform a secular obligation to which he contractually bound 
himself. In this regard, no doctrinal issue need be passed upon, no 
implementation of a religious duty is contemplated, and no interference with 
religious authority will result. Certainly nothing the Beth Din can do would in 
any way affect the civil divorce. To the extent that an enforceable promise can 
be found by the application of neutral principles of contract law, plaintiff 
will have demonstrated entitlement to the relief sought.

Howard Friedman

-Original Message-
From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu on behalf of Brownstein, Alan
Sent: Mon 1/3/2011 6:29 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant toan 
arbitration agreement?
 
Eugene writes,
  By the way, what do you think about a state university administering a 
privately funded scholarship for Christian students?

Just to clarify your point, Eugene - Is the distinction you are drawing one 
that distinguishes between government resources being allocated by private 
decision makers on the basis of religion and a government actor allocating 
private resources on the basis of religion. So for example  - if to avoid 
overcrowding in the courts, the government financed arbitration panels to 
resolve contract disputes and the parties agreed to select arbitrators of a 
particular faith to hear their dispute, that would not be a problem. But if a 
judge chooses arbitrators based on religious belief who will be paid by the 
parties (according to the terms of the arbitration clause in their contract), 
that would create a constitutional problem.

Alan Brownstein




From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Monday, January 03, 2011 2:29 PM
To: Law  Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: May American court appoint only Muslim arbitrators, pursuant to an 
arbitration agreement?

I wrote:


  I'm no great fan of the more expansive readings of Shelly.  But 
when a government actor is deciding who gets a particular (lucrative) position 
based on that person's religion, it seems to me that state action is eminently 
present, or more specifically that the government actor is discriminating based 
on religion in presumptive violation of the Free Exercise Clause and the First 
Amendment.  To be sure, the government actor isn't motivated by religious 
animus; it's just trying to enforce a contract.  But it is still deliberately 
treating people different from other people based on whether they are Muslims 
or not.  (When the court just enforces an arbitration conducted by a private 
party, there is not such discrimination by a government entity, even if the 
private party discriminates based on religion or sex in selecting the 
arbitrators.)

Nathan Oman writes:

Why say that the government is discriminating on the basis of religion if it is 
simply apply neutral principles of contract law.  I understand that there is a 
question as to whether the contract can be enforced using merely neutral 
principles, but that isn't your argument here.  Rather, I take it that your 
objection rests on a non-discrimination principle.  Where is the discriminatory 
legal principle at issue?


  I don't see a discriminatory legal principle at issue here.  But 
I see a discriminatory decision by a judge:  I will not appoint Joe Schmoe as 
an arbitrator, because he is not Muslim.  To be sure, the judge is just 
enforcing a contract.  But he is still a government actor, allocating a 
particular post based on religion.  That he is just doing that in enforcing a 
contract does not, I think, prevent his discriminatory conduct from being state 
action.

  By the way, what do you think about a state university 
administering a privately funded scholarship for Christian students?

  Eugene

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