On Fri, Jan 23, 2004 at 09:04:20PM -0800, Hal Finney wrote:
Do you think it would come out differently with a universal distribution?
There are an infinite number of universal distributions. Some of them
assign greater probability to even integers, some of them assign greater
probability to
: Friday, January 23, 2004 9:23 AM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: probabilities measures computable universes
Are probabilities always and necessarily positive-definite?
I'm asking this because there is a thread, started by Dirac
and Feynman, saying the only difference between
I browsed through recent postings and hope
this delayed but self-contained message can clarify
a few things about probabilities and measures
and predictability etc.
What is the probability of an integer being, say,
a square? This question does not make sense without
a prior probability
Are probabilities always and necessarily positive-definite?
I'm asking this because there is a thread, started by Dirac
and Feynman, saying the only difference between the classical
and quantum cases is that in the former we assume the probabilities
are positive-definite.
Thus, speaking of
Juergen Schmidhuber writes:
What is the probability of an integer being, say,
a square? This question does not make sense without
a prior probability distribution on the integers.
This prior cannot be uniform. Try to find one!
Under _any_ distribution some integers must be
more likely than
5 matches
Mail list logo
