On Sun, 15 Sep 1996 20:25:32 -0700 (PDT) Gerald Levy said: >recall, the expression "superexploitation" is nowhere found in Marx. So >when and who originated the term? > Thanks to those who have responded so far. Jerry has understood my query. I had thought Lenin (in Imperialism) might have used the term, but I don't find it there. Nor is it listed in the subject index to his Collected Works. Nor do I find it in the books of Samir Amin or Arghiri Emmanuel, two likely "suspects." So the mystery remains (for me, anyway): where did the term come from? As for what it means, let me just clarify the second point Ajit Sinha asked about. Charles Bettelheim, in Appendix I to the Monthly Review edition of Emmanuel's Unequal Exchange, interprets Marx to imply that "the more the productive forces are developed, the more the proletarians are exploited ... reciprocally, of course, this means that, depite their low wages, the workers of the less developed countries are less exploited than those of the advanced..." Others reason similarly, and some conclude that the workers of the poorer countries cannot be said to be superexploited, because of this. So I'm looking for sources. Walter Daum
