Am I correct in assuming that the output below essentially translates to
Males have a mean time that is significantly lower than Females? Is this
the correct way to interpret the fact that the coefficient is negative?
Assume the variale sex is treated as a factor with Female =0 and Male=1.
On May 4, 2012, at 9:43 AM, wwreith wrote:
Am I correct in assuming that the output below essentially
translates to
Males have a mean time that is significantly lower than Females?
Is this
the correct way to interpret the fact that the coefficient is
negative?
I wouldn't be using
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