Dear All,
I think I'm not the only one struggling with getting some kind of index
showing the amount of variance explained in the dependent variable in
phylogenetically controlled models.
I know many people will say, that in GLS models we estimate parameters in
the transformed data space, and R2 is not reliable in these models.
In a standard linear regression (mod <- lm(x~y)) R2 is estimated as (cor(x,
fitted(mod)) )^2.
Isn't it an appropriate way of estimating the amount of variance explained?
Fitted values, are estimated taking into account explanatory variables and
phylogeny as well. I know this is a simple correlation of the observed
values and the fitted ones, but if it's good for lm(), why wouldn't it be
good for PGLS?
I guess I'm thinking about this in a much easier way than I should... Just
tell me, please if I'm wrong and tell me why.
Balazs
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