Here is a possible example that supports Doug`s position. There was a case in
Illinois some years ago in which a Jewish couple married at an Orthodox
synagogue (where the wife`s father attended) but niether was orthodox. The
wife then became orthodox and the changing religious values led to
I have heard two anecdotes, but know of no reported decision, involving a
similar situation in Roman Catholic canon law proceedings for an annulment. The
pattern was the same. A Roman Catholic marries a non-Catholic in a Roman
Catholic ceremony, with appropriate dispensation (which includes
Eugene wrote:
Consider the following: Say that an actor agrees to star in a movie two
years hence. He then undergoes a religious conversion, and concludes that
participating in the movie would be against God's will, perhaps because the
movie involves too much sex, nudity, alcohol, irreligion,
This is an interesting wrinkle, but I don't see how submitting to the
religious courts for the adjudication of a particular dispute constitutes
the prevention of conversion. If A and B, being both citizens and residents
of France, enter into a contract with an arbitration clause that applies
In a message dated 11/19/08 2:38:57 PM, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
... This is not a problem if both parties agree, after the dispute has
arisen, to go to the religious court, and if both parties abide by the
judgment.
That is just a mechanism for voluntary dispute resolution; the
I have gradually come round to the view that state recognition of marriages
performed by religious authority is problematic too, but not for the same
reasons as divorce. The marriage is consensual, and the choice of who is to
perform the marriage is consensual; neither spouse is being coerced
