My apologies for the delay replying to Mark's response.  Two quick thoughts:

(1)  Mark's response is carefully tailored to the manslaughter hypothetical, 
but doesn't deal with the claimed testimonial privilege hypothetical, the 
antidiscrimination law hypothetical, the copyright law hypothetical, or the 
many other situations where laws have various exceptions for secular reasons.

(2)  Even as to the manslaughter hypothetical, I'm not sure that "if a 
religious blasphemy motivation were sufficient to turn murder into 
manslaughter," "[t]he damage to the law's purposes would substantially exceed 
the damage caused by the traditional mitigating factors that differentiate 
manslaughter from murder."  All mitigation of murder to manslaughter can cause 
some societal harms, and the magnitude of the harms depends on what you think 
of the particular kind of provocation.  My sense is that many feminists think 
the adultery category of provocation reinforces sexist notions that have long 
partly legitimated violence by cuckolded men (though the law formally applies 
to women who kill as well, they are much rarer than men who kill).  Others 
might well think that the retaliation-for-violent-attack category of 
provocation reinforces attitudes that dangerously support private revenge.

It's far from obvious, I think, that these harms caused by the secular 
mitigation categories are "substantially exceed[ed]" by the possible harms that 
would be caused by a blasphemy mitigation category - at least if the decision 
is to be made by judges applying a constitutional Free Exercise Clause rule.  
To be sure, I think it's perfectly reasonable for legislatures to come to this 
conclusion, or for that matter to conclude that even if the harms are 
comparable, someone who kills in reaction to adultery or to an attack on 
himself or a close family member is just morally less culpable than someone who 
kills in reaction to blasphemy.  But that just reflects my perspective that the 
presence of secular exceptions shouldn't take the case out of the Employment 
Division v. Smith model and back into a vestige of the Sherbert/Yoder model.  
Once the case is pushed into the Sherbert/Yoder model, courts would have to 
decide that, as a constitutional matter, the damage to the law's purposes of a 
hypothetical blasphemy provocation would indeed substantially exceed the damage 
caused by the adultery provocation and other provocations - and I just don't 
see any principled way for courts to reliably make such a judgment.

Eugene


From: religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu] On Behalf Of Scarberry, Mark
Sent: Thursday, February 16, 2012 12:15 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: Answering Eugene's hypos

I realized as I went through Eugene's hypos that I'd be two or three law review 
articles (or maybe a book) down the road before I was able to answer them to my 
(or presumably his) satisfaction. Much of this may involve me trying to 
reinvent various wheels, and help from others who already know about the wheels 
would be appreciated.

I'll try to work through the hypos as I have time, but let me say something 
initially about the first one: whether my views would require that a killing 
for blasphemy be treated as manslaughter, because the religious reason is like 
other non-religious reasons which are sufficient to reduce a homicide from 
murder to manslaughter.

One of the purposes of a strong regime of religious freedom is to minimize 
religious violence. That purpose is directly and substantially undermined if we 
treat homicide more leniently where it is motivated by anger against the 
victim, due to the victim's religion or exercise of religion.

More generally, religious freedom cannot exist (at least in a society that is 
not armed to the teeth) if the state does not provide the basic protection 
against violence that, even on a Hobbesian view, is necessary for the state to 
have legitimacy. As the Declaration puts it, "to secure these rights [life, 
liberty, pursuit of happiness], Governments are instituted among Men." We 
institute the government in order to create an environment in which we can 
exercise the rights. Of course, if it fails to provide such an environment or 
affirmatively invades our rights, then  "it is the Right of the People to alter 
or to abolish it, and to institute [a] new Government." There is thus a 
baseline of protection against violence (and perhaps other forms of 
interference) by others that would prevent us from enjoying our unalienable 
rights, including the right to religious liberty.

The government's interests (our interests) in preventing violence and in 
particular violence directed against the exercise of an unalienable right would 
be greatly undermined if we recognized an offense to religious sensibilities as 
a mitigating factor in a homicide. Such recognition would put us all at risk of 
violence for practicing our religions (or for not practicing someone else's).

In addition, the traditional mitigating factors are retail in nature:  if I 
sleep with someone's wife, he may become enraged and kill me on the spot, but I 
won't be in danger from thousands of people who want to kill me for doing that 
(unless I'm Don Juan or Benjamin Franklin). Ditto if I beat someone up; he or 
she might become enraged and kill me, but it would only be one person who would 
be out for my blood. Or if I kill someone then one family or perhaps one family 
member might seek revenge. ("My name is Inigo Montoya. You killed my father. 
Prepare to die." But in our world, Inigo would not be able to claim that his 
killing of Count Rugen was manslaughter, would he?) By contrast, there could be 
thousands of people who would want to kill me for committing blasphemy; it's 
more of a wholesale matter. That's certainly true historically, and, 
unfortunately it is once again becoming true. Consider Salman Rushdie and the 
cartoonists and publishers of the Mohammed cartoons. Consider all the people 
who died in riots over those cartoons. Consider the members of religious 
minorities who are killed by mobs because of rumors of blasphemy.

There are other distinctions that could be drawn, but I think this analysis 
makes my point. The purposes of our laws would  be very seriously undercut if a 
religious blasphemy motivation were sufficient to turn murder into 
manslaughter. The damage to the law's purposes would substantially exceed the 
damage caused by the traditional mitigating factors that differentiate 
manslaughter from murder. Under Justice (then Judge) Alito's analysis in 
Fraternal Order of Police, I think this is not even close.

Mark

Mark S. Scarberry
Professor of Law
Pepperdine Univ. School of Law




From: Scarberry, Mark
Sent: Wednesday, February 15, 2012 11:32 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Laws with exceptions as triggering strict scrutiny -- and as 
failing strict scrutiny because of their underinclusiveness?

Eugene,

I will try to respond to your hypos later today, but here is a non-hypothetical 
question: Do you think Fraternal Order of Police v. Newark was correctly 
decided?

Best,
Mark

From: 
religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu<mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu> 
[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu]<mailto:[mailto:religionlaw-boun...@lists.ucla.edu]>
 On Behalf Of Volokh, Eugene
Sent: Wednesday, February 15, 2012 9:44 AM
To: Law & Religion issues for Law Academics
Subject: RE: Laws with exceptions as triggering strict scrutiny -- and as 
failing strict scrutiny because of their underinclusiveness?

                Mark:  A few hypotheticals:  (1)  Say that a state provides 
that adequate provocation makes killing manslaughter rather than murder, and 
that a particular set of behaviors - having sex with the defendant's spouse, 
having just beaten a defendant (but in a situation where the peril is over and 
no self-defense is allowed), and some other things - qualify as adequate 
provocation.  And say that this defense is indeed used in dozens of cases a 
year.  Someone kills someone for what he perceives is blasphemy, and argues 
that his religious sense of provocation should be treated the same as the 
provocation in the adultery, assault, etc. examples, so that he would be guilty 
only of manslaughter rather than murder.  He argues that this presumptively 
entitles him to an exemption, and that it indeed the presumption can't be 
rebutted under strict scrutiny because murder law is underinclusive.

                (2)  Someone feels a religious obligation not to testify 
against his children or parents, or against coreligionists, or in other 
contexts.  He points to all the privileges recognized as defenses to the duty 
to testify, and argues that these exceptions presumptively entitle him to an 
exemption, and that indeed the presumption can't be rebutted under strict 
scrutiny because the duty to testify is underinclusive.

                (3)  Someone feels a religious obligation not to hire women to 
work together with men, or not to hire women with small children at home.  He 
points to the BFOQ exemption and to the exemption for small employers, both of 
which would exclude many more employees from Title VII's protection than would 
his proposed exemption.  He argues that these exceptions presumptively entitle 
him to an exemption, and that indeed the presumption can't be rebutted under 
strict scrutiny because antidiscrimination law is underinclusive.

                (4)  Someone feels a religious obligation to spread the word of 
God for free; that word happens to be in a book whose copyright is owned by 
others.  His claim isn't just to a right to do this in church, but to a right 
to do this everywhere.  He points to the many exceptions from copyright law, 
from 17 USC 107 to 17 USC 122 (each of the sixteen sections contains at least 
one exemption).  He argues that these exceptions presumptively entitle him to 
an exemption, and that indeed the presumption can't be rebutted under strict 
scrutiny because copyright law is underinclusive.

                Is it really the case that all these laws should be subject to 
strict scrutiny - especially given that the underinclusiveness prong of strict 
scrutiny might well make the laws invalid under such a test?

                My thinking is that the answer is no.  Most laws involve the 
reconciliation of competing interests, including competing private interests 
that the government is trying to protect; and I don't think that the fact that 
someone has a religious motivation to do something constitutionally entitles 
him to the best treatment available to others.  That my rights as a copyright 
owner are limited in some ways to serve rival concerns doesn't mean that 
there's a constitutional obligation on the government's part to limit them 
further in order to serve some people's view of what God demands - a view that 
is not my view, and to which my rights should not, I think, bend.  But whatever 
one might think of this as a matter of first principles, it seems to me that 
this "most favored nations" approach likely yields results, in cases such as 
the ones I described above, that are rightly seen as improper.

                Eugene
...
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