It is OK -- it is working as it should be.

 

The "no MX" test applies to the domain of the email address in the "From:"
address in the header of the received email and not the rdns-resolved domain
of the IP address used to connecting to your mailserver.

 

e.g. if you are connecting from <ip-address>.static.jazztel.es  there will
never be an MX record for that domain/subdomain and there is no point
testing to see if there is.

 

Faris.

 

(sory for the html)

 

 

 

 

From: spamdyke-users-boun...@spamdyke.org
[mailto:spamdyke-users-boun...@spamdyke.org] On Behalf Of r...@comunica2.net
Sent: 07 August 2009 09:13
To: spamdyke-users@spamdyke.org
Subject: [spamdyke-users] Testing DNS tests

 

I now repeatedly see SPAM from a source that has no MX record in their rDNS
domain and they apparently know how to by-pass greylisting. 

I decided to follow the example in this mailing list and used telnet
<mailserver> 25 to test my server. 


I started with all DNS Tests active and first I got rejected because of
reject-ip-in-cc-rdns which was correct, because 

 nslookup <myip>

indeed returns a reverse Domain name with my IP address included and is from
a country domain. 


I deactivated reject-ip-in-cc-rdns and did the test again. Now I was
rejected because of reject-unresolvable-rdns. And indeed 

 dig <reverse domain> a 

fails to respond. 


I deactivated reject-unresolvable-rdns and did the test again. Now I was not
rejected any more, but when I do

 dig <reverse domain> mx

it fails to reaspond, meaning there is no mx record. Shouldn't Spamdyke have
rejected it on this basis?


I did the same test from a server that has no country in the domain, but has
not mx record. I noticed that both are subdomains.

My connections address is in the format <ip-address>.static.jazztel.es When
I test 

dig jazztel.es mx

indeed it responds. Could it be Spamdyke tests MX of the domain instead of
the subdomain? Is that a wise thing to do, since many ISP will have a MX in
their domain, isn't it?





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