If you have a valid IPv6 prefix why use 6to4 addreses at all?  Why not
just deprecate 6to4 and move to IPv6 addresses directly?

thanks
/jim 

> -----Original Message-----
> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On 
> Behalf Of Fredrik Tolf
> Sent: Wednesday, March 16, 2005 6:38 AM
> To: Michael Banta
> Cc: [EMAIL PROTECTED]; users@ipv6.org
> Subject: Re: 6to4 question
> 
> On Wed, 2005-03-16 at 04:41 -0500, Michael Banta wrote:
> > I am aware of a full ip address, just figured I would spare 
> you the full 
> > address since it is not pertenant to the question.
> > 
> > I keep reading that with 6to4 addresses, they are supposed 
> to start with 
> > 2002: prefixes so that autoconfiguration can take place 
> with the clients.
> 
> 6to4 address are something quite different from a block 
> provided through
> a tunnel. a 2001 address is a "real" IPv6 address -- that is, 
> a part of
> the IPv6 Internet with no IPv4 dependencies.
> 
> 6to4 addresses (i.e. those starting with 2002), on the other hand, are
> part of the IPv4-to-IPv6 migration plan. If you have a globally
> aggregatable IPv4 address (i.e. an IPv4 address that anyone 
> on the IPv4
> internet can send packets to, such as _not_ a part of the 
> 192.168.0.0/24
> blocks), you are, with 6to4, automatically given a /48 IPv6 subnet.
> 
> I know I haven't really explained this very well at this 
> point, so I'll
> try with an example. I'm using 6to4. I have a static IPv4 address,
> 82.182.133.20. Written in hexadecimal, that is 52.b6.85.14. 
> Using that,
> I can construct my automatic 6to4 subnet: 
> 2002:52b6:8414::/48. I, too am
> using a Linux router with radvd, and the computer I'm typing this from
> has gotten the address2002:52b6:8514:200:20c:76ff:fe3b:a3f4. The nice
> thing with this is that I need no tunnel provider. The bad 
> thing is, of
> course, that it depends on IPv4.
> 
> The way 6to4 works is that when my router detects an outgoing IPv6
> packet, it first checks the destination address. If it starts 
> with 2002,
> it rolls the packet inside an IPv4 packet, checks bits 16 
> through 48 in
> the destination address, and put those in the IPv4 destination address
> field. For example, when communicating with my friend, who also uses
> 6to4 and has the IPv4 address 213.132.111.101, I send a packet to her
> IPv6 address, 2002:d584:6f65::1. My router extracts 
> d584:6f65, which is
> 213.132.111.101 in hexadecimal, and puts that in the IPv4 packet's
> destination address field, puts the IPv6 packet as the IPv4 
> payload, and
> sends the packet. When her computer picks it up, it unwraps the IPv6
> packet and uses it.
> When communicating with a non-6to4 address, my router sends it, again
> wrapped in an IPv4 packet, to a IPv4-to-IPv6 router on the Internet.
> Many ISPs support the anycast address 192.88.99.1, which always means
> "the closest IPv4-to-IPv6 router". When a non-6to4 host wishes to send
> v6 packets to me, it just sends them normally and the IPv6 Internet
> backbone will route them to the closest IPv6-to-IPv4 router, 
> which will
> wrap their package in an IPv4 packet, check the IPv6 
> destination address
> (2002:52b6:8514:X) and calculate the proper IPv4 destination 
> address (my
> 82.182.133.20 address) from that, and send it to me over 
> IPv4. My router
> will then unwrap it when it gets it, and forward it over my internal
> IPv6 network.
> 
> So as you see, 6to4 addresses are something quite different from the
> 2001::/48 block that you got from your tunnel provider.
> 
> > The /48 was given to me by the provider.  I am aware of the 
> addresses 
> > construction, just can't figure out how to get the clients 
> to connect 
> > through the router.
> 
> I still don't really understand what your actual problem is, after all
> this.
> 
> Hope this helps.
> Fredrik Tolf
> 
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