While we await Kate's investigation of 'sentimentality' in the 18th Century --
we might observe that Aristotle mentioned no such fault in either tragedy or
epic poetry.

"there are five sources from which critical objections are drawn. Things are
censured either as impossible, or irrational, or morally hurtful, or
contradictory, or contrary to artistic correctness."

Indeed, Aristotle  repeatedly pointed to "pity and fear" as the proper
responses to be aroused -- and what is more sentimental than pity ?

'Sentimentality' is not a problem for Aristotle -- but he is concerned with
just who is being sentimental  (the same issue which Mando and I were
discussing yesterday)

"If the more refined art is the higher, and the more refined in every case is
that which appeals to the better sort of audience, the art which imitates
anything and everything is manifestly most unrefined. The audience is supposed
to be too dull to comprehend unless something of their own is thrown by the
performers, who therefore indulge in
restless movements."

So.. Aristotle might mark down paintings of big-eyed children not because they
were sentimental -- but because they would only appeal to an audience that
could not respond  to something more subtle.

And... I wouldn't be surprised if 'sentimentality' were not disparaged until
the art ideologies of the late 19th or early 20th Centuries elevated thought
over feeling.


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