When I ask Is it art? I am presuming that an artwork is a cultural object, 
designated by one or many people according to known or unknown assumptions.  
That doesn't mean it is really mind independent, but is instead a  purported 
exemplification of those assumptions. 

When Cheerskep says the mixture of feelings and cerebral responses are "a 
matter of degree" he is using an analytical approach to identify what he says 
is not analytical but instantaneous.  Further, to say it's a degree....well, of 
what? Does he mean in terms of a ratio between the felt and the cerebral?  If 
so then he is retaining a separate quality for each when it is commonly 
recognized that the old Cartesian duality is actually wrong and that what we 
called feeling and reason are actually one thing.  Our language and traditions 
are steering us away from reality in this case.  If he means a degree of 
intensity then we are still at a loss since no one can know the intensity of 
another's feeling-cognition.  

To answer Cheerskep's question What is the aesthetic experience? we can turn to 
the accumulated answers over history. All of them answer the question in 
metaphorical terms and thus none is truly descriptive but imaginatively 
suggestive.  In other words, many, many metaphors may do equally well in 
answering Cheerskep's question.  However we are not sure if they can be ranked 
for appropriateness (his "degree" issue).   

Let's turn our attention to the metaphors and ask if there is a single metaphor 
that can stand for my aesthetic experience as well as Cheerskep's and Michael's 
and Miller's and Imago's all the others here.  I strongly suspect we will not 
discover one.  Furthermore, I suspect that each instance of aesthetic 
experience may evoke a different metaphor for each person.  That means I 
conclude that there are no commonalities (is Cheerskep asking for 
mind-independent qualities here?) for feelings and the cerebral -- however 
mingled --  and thus no basis for assigning degrees to them.

Cheerskep's quest for a reductive description of the aesthetic experience that 
always applies, both to him and all others, is a vain one since it excludes the 
subjective and is, in fact, a search for that which he denies, a mind 
independent phenomena.

wc


----- Original Message ----
From: "[email protected]" <[email protected]>
To: [email protected]
Sent: Sat, February 27, 2010 2:14:23 PM
Subject: Re: "What is happening during an 'a.e.'?"

Some brief thoughts stirred by the recent postings from William and 
Michael:

1. A crucial difference between William's interest and mine: Basically, his 
question is: Is it art? Mine is: Does it give me an a.e.? I believe there 
is no mind-independent category of "works of art". 

2. I am with Michael when he suggests one's aesthetic reaction to a work is 
immediate. Once I reached adulthood, if a work did not immediately bring me 
a degree of a.e., no amount of study of and reflection on the work 
thereafter ever resulted in an a.e.'s arising. I might grow to "admire" a work 
more, 
but the experience it occasioned in me would never be an a.e.

3. Michael's theory that all "emotions" are of either fear or safety 
strikes as of little worth. For very basic openers, he does not try to convey 
what 
his notional criteria are for calling a feeling an "emotion". (Notice that 
underlying all this is my ontological conviction that to ask if a feeling 
"is" or "is not" an "emotion" is to be misguided. There is no "absolute" 
quasi-Platonic mind-independent category of "emotions".) 

Further, his argument that things that do not pose a threat to us thus 
appeal to our feelings of safety and security is unpersuasive to me.   If I 
take 
a walk in Central Park I observe many things to which I am effectively 
indifferent--"a tree, a rock, a cloud".   I'm not aware of observing a cloud 
and 
finding my sense of vulnerability to a heart attack or terrorist assault or 
to death - immediate or ultimate -- is at all reduced by that observation. 

I register as a tiny nuisance someone else's grammatical error, but I deny 
that it increases my sense of threat one whit.   You may construct a 
specious argument to the effect that I subliminally infer a threat to 
"civilization 
as we know it", but I simply deny feeling even a hint of that fear. 

4. When Michael writes: "I think you are offering us a false distinction. 
The "cerebral" experience should be just as open to an emotional dimension as 
any other experience," he is evidently forgetting my emphatic statement 
that all such things are "a matter of degree". When I bask in DeBussy's "La 
Mer" I may fleetingly reflect on the instrumentation --   a reflection that I'd 
term 'cerebral' - but the degree of cerebrality I bring to bear as I Iisten 
to 'La Mer' is far less than the degree when I read a Shakespeare sonnet. 

Similarly, when Kate quotes my phrase, "cerebal-vs-visceral", and comments: 
"I thought it had to do both," she's right and wrong: Agreed, it always has 
to be both, but the point I was trying to stress, the fact I'd never 
sufficiently focused on in the past, was that the relative proportions vary 
greatly; the degree of cerebrality called on by some works can far less than it 
is 
in others.   And yet they can both occasion an a.e..

5. Remember: My initial interest here was in coming to "understand" better 
what's going on when we have an a.e..   When pondering this question a while 
back, I was surprised to find I was having trouble distinguishing the 
"aesthetic" feeling occasioned in me by certain "real life" moments from my 
feeling as I contemplated certain so-called "works of art".   That seemed to 
complicate the question a bit.

During these last few days, my summoning up in my mind a clearer 
realization of the variation in degrees of "cerebral vs visceral" seems to add 
yet 
more complexity to the question of "the nature of a.e.", and just what is going 
on when we have one of those a.e.'s. 

Even my hoped-for "understanding" of "what is happening when we get an 
a.e." will be a matter of degree. The multiplex of factors and related 
questions 
is comparable to those entailed by the question, "What is happening when we 
have an orgasm?" If I were to ask, "Why is it a pleasurable event?" the 
interpretations of what's on my mind would vary: One line of answers will 
assume I'm inquiring after the function of its being pleasurable, and it will 
describe the usefulness of its pleasurability in the propagation of the 
species. 

Another will focus on the immediate physiology of orgasm and say such 
things as, "It is pleasurable because (in a male) it relieves the engorgement 
of 
the epididymis and vas deferens," etc . 

At which point I might ask, "Yes, but why is THAT pleasurable? I can see 
the function, the utility, of the pleasure - not altogether unlike the relief 
of discomfort when we empty a full bladder - but what precisely is happening 
in our neural system such that the pre-orgasm stimulation and the orgasm 
itself come to consciousness as pleasure?" I could imagine some reasonable 
people staring at me, wondering what more of an "explanation" I could be after. 


Similarly, I can imagine bafflement when I ask, "Why does listening to 
Beethoven Ninth, or looking at Van Gogh's "Sunflowers", or reading Dickinson 
give me pleasure?" I can imagine my audience saying, "Are you asking about the 
substance and structure of the work, or about why that particular structure 
occasions the feeling it does?" 

I'm asking both. And I'm prepared to accept that the satisfactoriness of 
the answer will always be a matter of degree, never one hundred percent. 
Nevertheless I'm sure I could understand a great deal more than I do right now. 

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