On Wed, Feb 5, 2020, 7:08 AM TimTyler <[email protected]> wrote: > On 2020-02-03 13:38:PM, Matt Mahoney wrote: > > > Why does Occam's Razor exist? Because you can't have a uniform > > distribution over an infinite set. All possible distributions favor > > short strings over long, or small integers over large. For any string, > > you have an infinite set of longer and less likely strings and a > > finite set of the other 3 possibilities. > > > I don't think that can be the reason. There's no evidence that anything > infinite exists. > > What we can see is finite in space and time. A claim that invokes > infinity is surely > > on shaky ground, because of assuming something infinite without > evidence. Occam's > > razor also likely applies in toy finite worlds, such as those modeled by > cellular automata. > > I don't think it has much to do with infinity. >
Turing machines are useful models of computation even though they cannot exist in a finite universe. What do you think is the reason Occam's Razor works, if not math? ------------------------------------------ Artificial General Intelligence List: AGI Permalink: https://agi.topicbox.com/groups/agi/T353f2000d499d93b-M12ce7bba17a2077930128a57 Delivery options: https://agi.topicbox.com/groups/agi/subscription
