If it helps, the thought I had in mind was:
If the Rules associate payment of a set of assets (hereafter
the fee for the action; syns: cost, price, charge) with performing
an action, that action is a fee-based action.
The action of "destroying a coin" is certainly associated with a cost
(destruction) of a set of assets - namely, a coin. Therefore, destroying
a coin is a fee-based action.
On 7/17/2019 7:58 PM, Aris Merchant wrote:
It doesn’t matter; the rules define instances of a currency owned by the
same person as completely fungible.
-Aris
On Wed, Jul 17, 2019 at 9:45 PM [email protected] <
[email protected]> wrote:
On Wed, 2019-07-17 at 18:21 -0700, Kerim Aydin wrote:
I pay a fee of one coin to destroy a coin.
The coin you paid as part of the fee, or a different coin? The sentence
is ambiguous in English.
--
ais523
