@Anon: Nope. Suppose a=0 and b=2. Then the probability of getting 0 is 1/4, the probability of getting 1 is 1/2, and the probability of getting 2 is 1/4.
Dave On Jul 6, 11:31 pm, anonymous procrastination <[email protected]> wrote: > @surender > Yep, I think the same. > for(i=0;i<(b-a);i++,a+=rand(0,1)); > > Watsay? -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Algorithm Geeks" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/algogeeks?hl=en.
