Can someone see the flaw in the forthcoming logic? If any species produced allelopathic substances inhibiting others of its own species, would it not inhibit itself too? The only way around this is if every seed produced an individually different sort of allelopathy that would inhibit others of the species, but not itself.
This would seem incredibly far fetched, as there would be an infinite number of similar yet different allelopathic chemicals - as many as there are different genetics within the species. How could this be possible? Rick Rodich just west of Minneapolis, MN zone 4 ____________________________________________________________ 53 Year Old Mom Looks 33 The Stunning Results of Her Wrinkle Trick Has Botox Doctors Worried http://thirdpartyoffers.juno.com/TGL3141/4f1a49673bf3f5d7547st01duc _______________________________________________ Alpine-l mailing list [email protected] http://mailman.science.uu.nl/mailman/listinfo/alpine-l
