As individual ...

In reference to [1], where we discuss whether or not there
should be a 1-1 relationship between an IP address and
a PID, and if it is not, how should we handle it?

On 06/24/2011 10:46 AM, Ben Niven-Jenkins wrote:
I think we should say something along the lines of what I suggest (it
probably doesn't need to go in much, if any, more detail either)
otherwise we risk interoperability issues where one client may
interpret such a map as invalid while others do not.

Ben: The bigger question to me is: is it indeed valid to have
a 1:N mapping between an IP address and a PID?  If it is not,
then we leave this to the category of configuration errors and
not discuss how to handle it in the draft (the draft cannot
provide hedges against every MUST and MUST NOT).

So, the larger question is:

  Do folks see a 1:1 relationship between a PID and an IP
  address?  Or do folks envision one IP address belonging
  to more than on PID?

My personal answer is to leave it at a 1:1 relationship, essentially
as it is defined in the draft right now.

Thanks,

[1] See the bottom half of
  http://www.ietf.org/mail-archive/web/alto/current/msg01058.html

- vijay
--
Vijay K. Gurbani, Bell Laboratories, Alcatel-Lucent
1960 Lucent Lane, Rm. 9C-533, Naperville, Illinois 60566 (USA)
Email: vkg@{bell-labs.com,acm.org} / [email protected]
Web:   http://ect.bell-labs.com/who/vkg/
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