To challenge the premise from a different angle:
"market failure," as I understand the term, typically
means something the market cannot provide for *anyone*
at *any* price.  A common example is moral hazard in
insurance: insurance reduces the incentive of the
insured to avoid risks.  The insurance agency can
construct signals to reduce that risk-courting
behavior, but they can't completely restore it to
pre-insured levels.

To say that "the market failed the poor" isn't exactly
a market failure, then.  The market obviously did NOT
fail the middle-class and well-off.  So the market
hasn't failed.  In fact, it seems to be doing what it
always does - providing for those who can pay.

(This is, of course, entirely incidental to the truth
of the matter, which is that the National Guard and
FEMA have mismanaged this crisis abhorrently from the
get-go and that companies like Wal-Mart and NGOs like
the Red Cross are responding far more quickly.  But
when the premise of the question is mistaken from the
get-go, it might be better to examine that first)

-JP


--- Michael Giesbrecht
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> The government (local, State, and Federal)
> appropriated responsibility
> for the Mississippi River levy system, the drainage
> systems, the pumping
> systems, the road ways, and the bridges, but
> apparently, they left it to
> the market to provide the service of evacuating the
> poor and the infirm.
> Since they poor and infirm were not, to any great
> extent, evacuated, is
> this an example of market failure?
>
>
>
>
>
> Best regards,
> Michael Giesbrecht
>
>





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