How is this for being on the fence? If one can reliably differentiate A from B in a blind test, then he can legitimately state a subjective preference.
If one cannot reliably differentiate A from B in a blind test, then he cannot legitimately state a subjective preference. Our ability to objectively measure is limited by the technology available, and perhaps ultimately limited by physical laws (see Heisenberg). If one can legitimately state a subjective preference, yet one cannot explain the difference through an objective measure, this is a limitation of our ability to measure, not an invalidation of the legitimate subjective preference. This appears logically sound to me, but if anyone wishes to enlighten me I am open to it. :) -- jeffmeh ------------------------------------------------------------------------ jeffmeh's Profile: http://forums.slimdevices.com/member.php?userid=3986 View this thread: http://forums.slimdevices.com/showthread.php?t=31533 _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list [email protected] http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
