opaqueice;232196 Wrote: 
> Can you clarify what you mean?  You mean a tone which is inaudible by
> itself can make an audible difference when played along with another
> tone?  Do you have a reference?

See post #12. Two things, 

1: As in post 12, inaudible frequencies can have an audible effect on
frequencies in the spectrum that we do hear. 

2: It has also been shown that inaudible frequencies (although not
directly heard), can be perceived by humans. [We don't know how]. 

I'm not saying that I can scientifically prove this stuff - thats the
whole point! We don't know. 

All I'm saying is to avoid making sweeping statements like "96kHz is
useless because we can't hear it" - judge with your ears and don't try
to scientifically prove sound quality. 

Not so long ago, we didn't understand the difference between types of
distortion (even order, odd order, number of harmonics, etc). Many
people in the '70s were trading their valve amps for new transistor
designs because because 0.00000001% THD "must be" better than 3% or
more which was all valve designs were capable of. But it didn't turn
out that way in actual terms, did it? Some of those '70s transistor
amps (although they measure well) are some of the most flat-sounding,
unmusical designs ever produced. To this day we don't necessarily know
why, but one aspect for sure is the fact that valves are known to
produce more even-order distortion (which can be perceived as musical)
and transistors produce more odd-order distortion. So maybe 3% even
order distortion is fine, but 0.000001% odd order distortion is
offensive?

Same with sampling frequencies - one day we'll be able to fill in the
blanks, but as yet, we don't know why.


-- 
amey01
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