On Wed, 27 Oct 2010 17:08:06 +0200, Yigal Levin <[email protected]> wrote: > > Isaac is not going to agree, but I would think that the dagesh is meant to > compensate for the loss of the Yod.
I would think that it would be better regarded as an instance (irregular to be sure) of yod being assimilated to the following taw, rather than diphthongizing as usual (/baytim/ -> /battim/ rather than /be:tim/). > -----Original Message----- > From: [email protected] > [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Pere Porta > Sent: Wednesday, October 27, 2010 4:57 PM > To: Randall Buth > Cc: Hebrew > Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why dagesh in batey? > > Hello, all. > I'm wondering why noun 'bayit', house, takes a dagesh within the tav in its > plural form (in both absolute and construct.) > > Look at Am 3:15, where both plural kinds appear. > > Is there a good reason for this dagesh? -- William Parsons _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
