Uri: Can you give one ancient written example of proto-Semitic? If not, why should we treat it as anything more than a made up language based on a theory that could very well be wrong in many ways? Including the so-called ayin/ghayin split (which apparently exists for Arabic, but did it ever for Biblical Hebrew?)?
Karl W. Randolph. On Thu, Dec 9, 2010 at 7:41 PM, Uri Hurwitz <[email protected]> wrote: > > Sorry, these are two different roots. The first is > indeed (LM. > The second is derived from the root GHayin LM. > The proto-Semitic Ghayin was written already in the > ancient paleo-Hebrew script with the same letter that > served the letter (YIN. > > Compare the name of the city (azah. To this day > the ancient pronounciation is preserved in the English > spelling Ghaza, and, of course, in normal Arabic > spoken and written use where it retains a separate letter. > > Uri Hurwitz Greay Neck, NY > > > > > > As I have already observed the word OLAM ( עולם ) is of the root > (LM ( עלם ), which certainly can not mean 'hidden, secrete, > conceal'. To wit: this is also the root of ELEM and ALMAH ( עלם, > עלמה ), 'young adults', which are not hidden, and have nothing to > hide. > > Isaac Fried, Boston University > > > > > > > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
