On Fri, Dec 10, 2010 at 02:22:29PM -0800, K Randolph wrote:
Can you give one ancient written example of proto-Semitic? If not, why should
we treat it as anything more than a made up language based on a theory that
could very well be wrong in many ways? Including the so-called ayin/ghayin
split (which apparently exists for Arabic, but did it ever for Biblical
Hebrew?)?
Accepting the ayin/ghayin split gave me better understanding of the word
"ivrit" and its dual meanings. Spelled with a ghayin, it is very close to the
English word "anger". With the ayin, it is very close to English "over". I
know not everyone agrees with Edenics, but I found it it a fascinating link.
Ted
Karl W. Randolph.
On Thu, Dec 9, 2010 at 7:41 PM, Uri Hurwitz <[email protected]> wrote:
Sorry, these are two different roots. The first is
indeed (LM.
The second is derived from the root GHayin LM.
The proto-Semitic Ghayin was written already in the
ancient paleo-Hebrew script with the same letter that
served the letter (YIN.
Compare the name of the city (azah. To this day
the ancient pronounciation is preserved in the English
spelling Ghaza, and, of course, in normal Arabic
spoken and written use where it retains a separate letter.
Uri Hurwitz Greay Neck, NY
As I have already observed the word OLAM ( ???????? ) is of the root
(LM ( ?????? ), which certainly can not mean 'hidden, secrete,
conceal'. To wit: this is also the root of ELEM and ALMAH ( ??????,
???????? ), 'young adults', which are not hidden, and have nothing to
hide.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
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