To our friend Isaac Fried. You often claim that after a patah one finds dagesh "*as expected*" (in your words). I see that many words having patah are, indeed, followed by dagesh. And so,
-L$LXNW, to send us away (Ex 13:15) -&MXNW, (you, male) gladden us! (Ps 90:15) and many other. But I remark too that often there is no dagesh after patah (and I know that gutturals aren't dageshed) And so -MLKNW, our king (Hos 7:5) -SL)Y, my rock (2S 22:2) -MQLY, my rod (Zc 11:10) and many other. Could you clarify your position hereon? 1. When, under which conditions a dagesh comes in the letter that is after a patah? 2. Are there some exceptions to the "rule" you may state? 3. If there are some exceptions: which these are? Kind regards from Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain) > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list > [email protected] > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
