karl, the talmudic, medieval and modern hebrew dialects are all tense-based, and so is aramaic. it would be more natural to assume an aramaic influence on modern hebrew, as opposed to a greek one.
in fact, aramaic and talmudic hebrew admit a one-to-one correspondence in the phoneme, lexical, grammatical and syntax levels, to the extent that i would call talmudic hebrew a word-for-word transliterated aramaic dialect (you can check it, for example, on the book of daniel). also, the tensing using past, present, future and auxiliary verb hyh/hwh are basically equal. this cannot be said about hebrew (or aramaic) vs any european language. nir cohen >>> Hence, looking not at the forms but at the actions that underlie the forms, I see the grammar of modern Israeli Hebrew to be a European language grammar, very different from the grammar of Biblical Hebrew. That is why I consider modern Israeli Hebrew to be a modern European language. _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
