Hi Jim On 7 April 2012 07:29, <[email protected]> wrote: <snip>
> 2. The first time that the word “Hebrew” appears in the Bible is at > Genesis 14: 13, when Abram is in the process of forming an alliance (or > “covenant”) with three princelings in Canaan, one of whom is a Hurrrian > (A-ni-ir). It is important in that context for Abram to assert that he > himself is as strong and capable as a Hurrian princeling, whereas it would > be senseless for Abram to tell the other princelings that he is a > “wanderer” who has “crossed over the Euphrates River”, which are the > conventional west Semitic misinterpretations of this Hurrian-based name. The > original pronunciation of (BR-Y was E-bi-ri-ya, where e-bi-ri means “lord” > in Hurrian, and -ya is a Hurrian theophoric suffix. [The initial ayin is > used to represent the Hurrian vowel E as its own separate syllable.] > (BR-Y/E-bi-ri-ya, > as a Hurrian-based name that the Hebrews adopted for themselves when > Hurrians dominated the ruling class of Canaan in the Amarna Age, means “God > Is Lord”. Yet a necessary implication of this fine name is that Abram > himself is a “lord”, being the equivalent of a powerful “Hurrian lord”, > with this name being based on the Hurrian word for “[Hurrian] lord”. > How do you square this origin for the word with the usage (the actual verse that I quote) of referring to the "Land of the Hebrews" and Joseph being a "Hebrew slave" when talking to the Egyptians? Chag sameach Chavoux Luyt _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
