Hi Berel, On Mon, 18 Jun 2012 11:35:30 -0400, Berel Beyer <[email protected]> wrote: > Hello all, > > I wonder if I could impose upon you for help pointing me in the right > direction. I understand that there are people who claim that the > masoretes intended the mappiq he to be an orthographic distinction > rather than one of actual pronunciation. Can anyone point me to an > article (for a non-expert like myself) that summarizes the argument?
I have seen that claim also, but have never seen any evidence to back it up. Until I see such, I think the most natural course is to take the mappiq at face value, and take it to indicate a pronounced [h] at the end of a word. -- William Parsons μη φαινεσθαι, αλλ' ειναι. _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
