Hello all, I wonder if I could impose upon you for help pointing me in the right direction. I understand that there are people who claim that the masoretes intended the mappiq he to be an orthographic distinction rather than one of actual pronunciation. Can anyone point me to an article (for a non-expert like myself) that summarizes the argument?
Many thanks! Berel Beyer -- Al titen lamuglegim ledake otcha! ~ Ron Weasley _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
