Hi List,

The moderators, of course, may feel free to consider this to be outside the
list boundaries, but I have two questions.

With regard to Judea, realizing that the the exact limits of the canon may
or may not have been established in the early first century CE,

(1)  Would every synagogue have had a complete collection of biblical
scrolls?

and

(2) Is it possible that there could have been any private ownership of
either individual biblical scrolls, or even a complete collection?

What is your understanding of the possibilities here?  And do you think
there would be a scholarly consensus on these questions?

Blessings,

Jerry Shepherd
Taylor Seminary
Edmonton, Alberta
Jerry Shepherd
[email protected]
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