Dear Chavoux, Other texts (e.g., 32:15; Exo. 15:18; I Sam. 8:7; et al.) suggest that "the LORD" must be the subject of וַיְהִי. However, I certainly do not see anything in the Hebrew of Deut. 33:5 and its immediate context to demand either. That may not be much help, but perhaps it somewhat confirms what you have observed.
Sincerely, Lee Moses Date: Wed, 21 Nov 2012 19:54:07 +0200 From: Chavoux Luyt <[email protected]> Subject: [b-hebrew] Deut.33:5 - Who is the king? To: [email protected] Message-ID: <CAPGeeiGx+wDvBr-kGQ+67UM_0o-2B_wtg=pk5fts+f+vcnc...@mail.gmail.com> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8" Shalom friends In Deut.33:5 we have: ???? ?????? ??? ?????? ???? ?? ??? ???? ?????? ("and he became king in Yeshurun...") In the context this verse appears to be ambiguous: it could either refer to Moses (named in verse 4) or refer back to the LORD (verse 2-3). It appears that most translations prefer the latter option. Am I correct that the Hebrew is ambiguous or is their any linguistic (or other) reason to prefer either meaning? Thanks Chavoux Luyt
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