Again, from John
________________________________
James Spinti
E-mail marketing, Book Sales Division
Eisenbrauns, Good books for more than 35 years
Specializing in Ancient Near Eastern and Biblical Studies
jspinti at eisenbrauns dot com
Web: http://www.eisenbrauns.com
Phone: 260-445-3118
Fax: 574-269-6788

Begin forwarded message:
> 
> ******************
> Dear Rolf,
> 
> Sorry I assumed that you would be offended by a perceived ad hominem attack; 
> most people understand that to be offensive. I'm unwilling to adhere to your 
> pessimistic assumption: "there is no final answer to the meaning of the 
> Hebrew verbal system." This seems merely a rouse to allow yourself the 
> freedom to claim whatever notions you want about the system. If you merely 
> mean that there is no FINAL answer as in any other area of knowledge, then 
> what is not self-evident about that and why should it give us any pause in 
> our discussion: while a final answer may not be forthcoming, some answers are 
> better than others. I'm not at all sure that the "balanced scholarly 
> approach" is "to question the conclusions of other scholars" but rather to 
> examine the data. But then that was my point: that all this theoretical 
> posturing does not permit adequate attention to the data.
> 
> And to repeat my point, I am not attacking people, even as you note that I've 
> called Andrason's approach naive, not Andrason himself (after all, don't we 
> regularly engage in calling actions evil without wanting to be so politically 
> incorrect as to call the people evil?)
> 
> But to oblige you in your questions:
> 
> 1) The definitions of the Hebrew verbal system have varied in the past 150 
> years, though not greatly: there have traditionally been two main camps, 
> tense-prominent (e.g., Blake, Joüon) and aspect prominent (e.g., Rundgren, 
> Waltke and O'Connor). But then these definitions have become "refined" as 
> linguists have refined their understanding. The problem is that the BH 
> discussion lags behind the linguistic discussion.
> 
> 2) The definitions I speak of are those linguists employ regularly and 
> without dispute among themselves (we're a long way from Comrie 1976!): see 
> the chapter on perfective/imperfective aspect on WALS 
> (http://wals.info/chapter/65). Linguists regularly employ these terms to 
> analyze a wide variety of language without getting stuck on defining what 
> aspect nor with special pleading that such and such language has aspect but 
> not in the same way as everyone else understands it.
> 
> 3) These definitions arise from the past quarter-century and more of 
> inductive study of verbal systems and the recognition of the type of temporal 
> relations that human language may express. So I suppose to be pointed: they 
> are not a priori, but they are both inductively based and philosophically 
> based (going back to Aristotle, grammarians recognize that elements of "time" 
> are regularly expressed by verbs, and these are the definitions of the types 
> of temporal relationships that verbs regularly encode).
> 
> 4 and 5) Yes, deictic center, event time, and reference time are features of 
> many analyses of verbal systems, arising from Reichenbach's  (1947) ideas on 
> tense. They are widely agreed upon by linguists.
> 
> 6) No, it is not silly to systematically apply these concepts to determine 
> the meaning of the Hebrew verbal system, but it does not follow that one's 
> systematic applications of these concepts is nevertheless silly, and that was 
> my point about your work. You neither systematically apply them nor is your 
> reasoning frequently sound. You engage in special pleading that other 
> considerations (esp. pragmatics) need to be taken into account, yet you have 
> not adequately critiqued your understanding of pragmatics: it becomes for you 
> a deus ex machina for any and all objections to your analysis.
> 
> John
> http://ancienthebrewgrammar.wordpress.com/
> 
> 
> 
> On Dec 13, 2012, at 3:04 AM, [email protected] wrote:
> 
>> ------------------------------
>> 
>> Message: 8
>> Date: Thu, 13 Dec 2012 09:04:16 +0100
>> From: "Rolf" <[email protected]>
>> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] More on verbs
>> To: [email protected]
>> Message-ID: <6504-50c98c00-11-443b0c80@82471991>
>> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
>> 
>> Dear James,
>> 
>> I am not "dancing around definitions" and I am not offended?I did not 
>> discuss my emotions?but I try to keep my discussions on a scholarly 
>> non-emotional level. However, I found that what James Spinti called a "nice 
>> overview, contained language that questioned the abilities  and scholarly 
>> knowledge of some who view Hebrew verbs differently from yourself, instead 
>> of addressing the linguistic questions. This is what I call "ad hominem 
>> arguments" For example, when you speak about Andrason's "lack of a clear 
>> grasp of the Hebrew data" and say that his approach is "naive," this is an 
>> attack on the scholar or person Andrason. And what is the premise for this 
>> evaluation of the scholar Andrason? That you KNOW; you have the answers. And 
>> the approaches of those who do not agree with what you KNOW, are naive and 
>> silly, and these scholars lack a knowledge of the Hebrew data.
>> 
>> I would like to remind you that there is no final answer to the meaning of 
>> the Hebrew verbal system. Any study of Hebrew verbs, including your own 
>> study, is based on induction, deduction, and on several basic assumptions 
>> (axioms). A balanced scholarly approach, therefore, would be to  question 
>> the conclusions of other scholars on the basis of  linguistic arguments, and 
>> not calling their approaches or persons with names.
>> 
>> I do not think that you have given adequate answers to my previous post, so 
>> I would like to comment on one point in each post. My focus now is on your 
>> words: " It is just silly to continue arguing over basic definitions that 
>> are widely agreed upon already, because it both wastes time and halts 
>> progress." I have some questions:
>> 
>> 1)  Is it true that the definitions of the Hebrew verbal system have 
>> differed greatly during the last 150 years (cf. the works McFall, Blake, 
>> Rundgren, Waltke-O'Connor, Jo?on_Muraoka, and others)?
>> 
>> 2) What are the definitions used in the study of Hebrew verbs that are 
>> "widely agreed upon"?
>> 
>> 3) Do these definitions have a particular basis, or are they just just a 
>> priori definitions, or definitions based on common sense?
>> 
>> 4) Is it true that the concepts "deictic center," event time," and 
>> "reference time" are fundamental linguistic concepts that are used by 
>> linguists in their study of the verbs of different languages?
>> 
>> 5) Is it true that the nature/meaning of the three concepts are widely 
>> agreed upon?
>> 
>> If you give  confirmatory answers to 4) and 5), my question is?
>> 
>> 6) in which sense is it silly to systematically apply the mentioned three 
>> concepts to the Hebrew verbal system in order to try to find the meaning of 
>> each conjugation, instead of just accepting traditional definitions a priori?
>> 
>> 
>> Best regards,
>> 
>> 
>> Rolf Furuli
>> Stavern
>> Norway
> 

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