John is still experiencing difficulties posting.
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Begin forwarded message:

> From: "John A. Cook" <[email protected]>
> Subject: Re: b-hebrew Digest, Vol 120, Issue 21
> Date: December 13, 2012 12:58:09 PM CST
> To: James Spinti <[email protected]>
> 
> Rolf,
> 
> Well this is slightly off topic, but let me respond briefly on the issue of 
> the Inf. Abs. in Phoenician: 
> 
> 1) There is some uncertainty as to whether we should call this an Inf. Abs., 
> which has arisen mainly on analogy with where BH uses the Inf. Abs. as a 
> stand in for a finite verb form, continuing the same sense of a leading verb; 
> I've long been intrigued (but how does one demonstrate the case?) with Gai's 
> claim (see reference below) that this is not an infinitive but a "serial 
> verb"—that is, a underspecified verb (N.B. the lack of person marking at the 
> least, if not lack of all TAM markings). 
> 
> Gai, Amikam
> 1982  The Reduction of Tense (and Other Categories) of the Consequent Verb in 
> North-west Semitic. Orientalia 51: 254–56.
> 
> 2) Regardless of whether Gai is followed, the form does appear to function as 
> serial verbs do in the handful of languages (mostly Africa and Southeast 
> Asia) occur: they are "underspecified" in some way and they are dependent on 
> a leading or ending finite form for their underspecified meanings. Note that 
> in v. 3 of Karatepe, the "narrative" begins with a perfect form and only then 
> continues with the apparent Inf. Abs. This sort of pattern has been argued 
> for BH, but it leads to all sorts of problems such as having to posit that 
> books beginning with wayyiqtol "assume" preceding material from which the TAM 
> of the form is derived.
> 
> 3) Thus, if we try to make an analogy with Phoenician, we end up embracing 
> some sort of serial understanding of the wayyiqtol, which is a view that has 
> been around for over a century and never widely accepted. As I argue in my 
> 2004 JSS article 
> (http://ancienthebrewgrammar.files.wordpress.com/2010/05/cook_bhwayyiqtolweqatal_jss2004.pdf),
>  there is no evidence that wayyiqtol is underspecified in any way or is a 
> serial verb of any sort.
> 
> 4) So, to clearly address your question: on the view that the Inf. Abs. (or 
> whatever the form) is a sort of serial verb form, we have a verb that does 
> not grammaticalize past tense but appears in narrative. However, it is 
> dependent on a leading form in order to maintain the past temporal location 
> of the narrative. Without this leading verb, how could we know that the text 
> is relating a past narrative as opposed to, say, a future prediction: 
> 
> I am Azitiwada, the blessed/vizier of Baal, servant of Baal whom Awarku king 
> of the Danunians made strong (PFV). Baal made me (PFV) a father and a mother 
> to the Danunians. I revived (INF ABS) the Danunians; I widened (INF ABS) the 
> land of the valley of Adana from the rising of the sun to its setting. (I ll. 
> 1-4).
> 
> John
> http://ancienthebrewgrammar.wordpress.com/
> 
> 
> On Dec 13, 2012, at 12:00 PM, [email protected] wrote:
> 
>> ------------------------------
>> 
>> Message: 5
>> Date: Thu, 13 Dec 2012 15:28:40 +0100
>> From: "Rolf" <[email protected]>
>> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Fwd: Re. re. More on verbs
>> To: [email protected]
>> Message-ID: <700b-50c9e600-11-7021630@222805160>
>> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="utf-8"
>> 
>> Dear John,
>> 
>> While I wait for your answer to the E-mail I posted this morning (local 
>> time), I have a question based on your comments below: In the 40 lines of 
>> the Phoenician Karatepe inscription, the verb form carrying the narrative 
>> forward is the infinitive absolute. There are 21 infinitive absolutes, 16 of 
>> which have a prefixed WAW, thus being syntactically similar to WAYYIQTOLs. 
>> Are these infinitive absolutes grammaticalized past tense, or can forms that 
>> have past reference but are not grammatcalized past tense be used as 
>> narrative forms in Semitic langauges?
>> 
>> 
>> 
>> Best regards,
>> 
>> 
>> Rolf Furuli
>> Stavern
>> Norway
>> 
> 

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