On 2/19/2013 1:34 AM, Ishnian wrote: > BARRY wrote: It was also a translation from the Vulgate, and not from > the original Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek, so naturally it is going to > follow *umbrae mortis* (shadow of death). I believe that all earlier > English translations also are from the Latin. > --------------------------------- > > ISHINAN: Actually "Shadow of Death" (Ps. xxiii:4, etc.) is Greek skia > thanatou! > Ishinan Ishibashi
Actually actually, the *Latin* Vulgate uses *umbrae mortis*, shadow of death. This shows us that that the Jews at the time of these translations read it as צֵל + מָוֶת, and not as צַלְמוּת. Why do I say the Jews at that time? Because it was Jewish translators who produced the LXX and rendered σκιὰ θανάτου, and because Jerome learned his Hebrew from Jews contemporary to him. Bryant pointed out that you may have meant Tyndale rather than Wycliffe, but the historic English translations took the versions available to them as accurate guides to the Hebrew. So you can say that the ancients were wrong in their understanding of the word, but what evidence do you have that this is the case, besides the bare assertion? -- N.E. Barry Hofstetter Semper melius Latine sonat The American Academy http://www.theamericanacademy.net The North American Reformed Seminary http://www.tnars.net Bible Translation Magazine http://www.bible-translation.net http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
