On 4/9/2013 9:45 PM, George Athas wrote:
 > I asked for comparison because when you say a language is 'isolated', it
 > begs the question, 'Isolated from what and how?' My appeal to cognates
 > was not to ask whether Hebrew was more isolated than these other
 > languages, but rather how there is a connection and commonality with
 > these languages at all in the first places (the fact there is one
 > suggests anything but isolation). I suspect that what you mean by
 > 'isolated' is 'static', such that Hebrew does not change at all across
 > many centuries. Is that correct?

Does Biblical Hebrew essentially become a literary language, like Latin 
and Greek after a certain period, so that the "koine" continues the 
process of change, but everybody when writing attempts to conform to a 
particular standard? Or is there not enough extra-biblical Hebrew to 
confirm this?

-- 
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
http://www.tnars.net
Bible Translation Magazine
http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
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