I'm not really certain how to respond to this discussion.It is my
understanding that most languages start off with a lot of
inconsistencies in spelling.Spelling becomes solidified after a seminal
work of literature and or a dictionary present a standard for the
language. Before Webster's dictionary, for example, you might find the
spelling /aetaernall/, for eternal. Disregarding regional differences
between America and Great Britain, such as color verses colour, you
still find some variation in spelling is normal.As I understand it the
Masoretes were attempting to indicate the pronunciation of vowels as
they understood how the words were pronounced at that time.How many
common words in English have a variety of acceptable pronunciations? If
we only consider the pronunciation of vowels the, aunt, and either come
to mind immediately.Can we really ascertain that the Masoretes were
wrong in their pronunciation?
Another question that I have to raise is Karl's comment, "Even if the
Masoretic points are 99% accurate, that averages out to one mistake
every three to four verses." I think that statement argues against
Karl's point.Do you really think that critical readers would not notices
one mistake every three to four verses?I won't say that the vowel
pointing is perfect but could someone please pick a chapter and show me
where there are that many apparent errors in transmission?
Personally, I place the vowel points and the other markings in the
Hebrew text on the same level I would comments by any student of the
scripture.They might be in error but they are worth considering. Having
said that, I also consider how other variations might alter the
interpretation of the text.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
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