On 7/22/06, [EMAIL PROTECTED] <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> So saying that Abdul-Baha, Guardian, UHJ had the same
> infallibility as
> Bahaullah would also be shirk?
Yes, saying they possessed the Most Great Infallibility would be
shirk.
So what is the definition of shirk which you are using?
And more specifically, if the Manifestations are not God, then saying
that Abdul-Baha or the Guardian et. al. had the same level of
infallibility as the Manifestation would just be saying that two
beings who aren't God are similar. Why would you call that shirk?
-Gilberto
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