> >> How can a router that doesn't know anything about IPv6 make a
> >> forwarding
> >> decision for ("route") packets (datagrams) using an addressing
> system
> >> it
> >> knows nothing about?
> >
> > If you are on a network which does not do IPv6, and you need (or
> want) to do
> > IPv6, you can get an address assigned to you from some provider and
> > encapsulate the IPv6 packets in IPv4. Much like doing a VPN tunnel
> to
> > access your 10.x.x.x network at work from your 192.168.1.x network at
> home,
> > except that your IPv6 address is world routable.
> >
>
> Right. But none of the devices between the tunnel endpoints are
> _routing_ IPv6, they're routing IPv4 packets that just happen to have
> an
> IPv6 payload inside.
What's your point? I assumed in the original question "how can a router
route IPv6 if it doesn't know IPv6" the intent was to demonstrate IPv6 was
unusable unless you had ISP and/or intermediate router support for it. I
assumed the literal term _routing_ was not the single important word in the
question. And I assumed that it would be valuable to demonstrate that IPv6
is usable even if your ISP or some intermediate router doesn't support IPv6.
Did I misunderstand the question? Who cares if some dumb Linksys or your
ISP don't know anything about IPv6 as long as they don't need to, and you
can still use it?
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