On Thursday, August 4, 2022 at 7:07:41 PM UTC-7 [email protected] wrote: > On Wed, Aug 3, 2022 at 12:45 PM George <[email protected]> wrote: > >> >> 1. Based on my tax liability, the company sells S shares at price P. >> Note, FMV != P. I am left with N - S = R shares, my remainder. Sometimes >> a >> little cash is left over and that is left in my brokerage account as cash. >> >> I'm surprised FMV != P. The brokers should have handled all of that > atomically. > In any case, I assume you have the cash amounts and numbers of shares for > both the vesting at FMV, and P sold for covering taxes? >
Interesting. As a datapoint, I've never worked for an employer where FMV == P for a sell-to-cover RSU vest. There is always a small loss or gain. For all my datapoints, FMV is taken to the closing price the day before the vest. P is the actual price obtained during the sale on the day of the vest. I've noticed that the actual sale's time-of-day varies each time, by upto 4 hours (i.e., in one case, the sell-to-cover sale was made about 4 hours after the market opened). I'm just as curious as to the mechanics of FMV == P. How does the broker sell a large number of shares for exactly the same price, all in one instant? More precisely, how do they find buyers for such a large transaction? -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Beancount" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/beancount/7312ff9f-8357-45ab-94c5-6ad0ad5dd659n%40googlegroups.com.
