I have a VPS and requested my webhost to fix reverse DNS for my domain &
IP. They responded by telling me to provide them with the records I want.
I found the following response to someone's question on the *Net*:
Many ISPs will put in CNAME records with values that have a
subdomain you DO control.
so they have 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. (one of "your" addresses) as
"IN CNAME 4-3-2-1.yourdomain.com".
Then you go into "your domain.com" and add
4-3-2-1 IN PTR foohost.example.com
So you can change your PTRs, and the world finds them via your
ISP's CNAMEs.
And I thought that seemed a good way to go. But I don't want to play
guessing games with my webhost as to the right record(s) and want to
confirm my guesses (and the above statement) with you experts before
casting it in concrete (or worse, having to repeatedly redo it to get it
right). In particular, he states:
so they have 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. (one of "your" addresses) as "IN
CNAME 4-3-2-1.*yourdomain.com*".
I think he typoed, or I really don't understand what he's saying. Did he
really mean to type:
"IN CNAME 4-3-2-1.*in-addr.arpa*"?
And so, the record I would provide to my webhost is "IN CNAME
4-3-2-1.in-addr.arpa"???
Or maybe he meant
*
* IN CNAME *1-2-3-4*.yourdomain.com ??
Just to be clear I have multiple subdomains/CNAMEs, but just one IP
address. I plan to run multiple apache vhosts on my VSP and single IP.
Thanks in advance!
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