On 08/06/2018 08:29 PM, A wrote:
I have a VPS and requested my webhost to fix reverse DNS for my domain & IP.  They responded by telling me to provide them with the records I want.

I found the following response to someone's question on the *Net*:

        Many ISPs will put in CNAME records with values that have a
        subdomain you DO control.
        so they have 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. (one of "your" addresses) as
        "IN CNAME 4-3-2-1.yourdomain.com".
        Then you go into "your domain.com" and add
        4-3-2-1 IN PTR foohost.example.com
        So you can change your PTRs, and the world finds them via your
        ISP's CNAMEs.

And I thought that seemed a good way to go.  But I don't want to play guessing games with my webhost as to the right record(s) and want to confirm my guesses (and the above statement) with you experts before casting it in concrete (or worse, having to repeatedly redo it to get it right).  In particular, he states:

That sounds like Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation.  Check out RFC 2317.

Link - Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation
 - https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2317

They would really set up the 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. as a CNAME to <something>.<yourdomainname>.

Then you set up a PTR record for <something>.<yourdomainname> that resolves to the name that you want reverse DNS for 1.2.3.4 to resolve to.

Just to be clear I have multiple subdomains/CNAMEs, but just one IP address.  I plan to run multiple apache vhosts on my VSP and single IP.

That may be problematic. Either you're going to end up publishing multiple records for <something>.<yourdomainname> -or- the IP address will reverse resolve to one FQDN.

I prefer the second route, and make all the vanity domain names be CNAMEs to the single name that the IP reverse resolves to.

Thanks in advance!

:-)



--
Grant. . . .
unix || die

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